I've been having a debate with a friend(he has a cognitive science degree and I'm from the philosophy department), and I've hit a roadblock with him in our rudimentary discussions on quantum physics on how normal processes can go on without observers present. I believe the basic question is, how did inflation occur after the big bang if particularity is bound by observation? before I had heard of the two-slit experiment, or the biocentric universe theory, I was convinced that matter was inextricably bound to consciousness from my own experiences of different states of consciousness. as I learned more about quantum entanglement and how all matter and energy from our universe was created at the same time in the big bang, it seemed to fit that our minds were what gave the universe its matter. but then there posed the problem that we haven't been around but for a blip of the universe's existence, so for all the cooling processes and galaxy forming to occur after the big bang, Bohr's statement that nothing can be counted as existing until it is observed seemed to inhere that a form of consciousness must have been present at the time. otherwise, the universe itself only exists as an ocean of waves of probability until our measuring devices detect it. that would mean that the whole of the universe outside of what we call the observable universe still exists in that cloudy wavy state. how can earth have had its substance in matter before complex enough neural networks developed in its creatures unless there was another consciousness there to observe it? on a slippery slope, doesn't this mean that consciousness is older than our universe?