PeroK said:
You claim to have a set of infinite extent.
No, that's not what he claimed. The limiting procedure
@PAllen described does not construct a
set and say that it is "a spacelike slice at time ##t = 0##". It only constructs a
number and says that it has the same value (infinity) at ##t = 0## as it has for all ##t > 0##. Of course this is a sloppy heuristic description, but it can be made precise without having to make any claims about an infinite set of points existing at ##t = 0##.
That said, there is also a different way of proceeding, which is to use the method used to construct Penrose diagrams to add a "boundary" corresponding to ##t = 0## to the FRW spacetime manifold. This procedure does in fact lead to a boundary with an infinite set of distinct points in it, each one corresponding to a particular 3-tuple of comoving coordinates, i.e., to a distinct "spatial point" in each spacelike slice in the region ##t > 0##. Physically, this corresponds to the fact that, in the limit ##t \rightarrow 0##, every single spatial point in the FRW universe becomes causally disconnected from every other. We can then use the induced metric (if it can be called that--see further comments below) on the boundary to compute zero spatial volume for this infinite set of points (because, as I noted earlier, the sum of an infinite set of zeroes is still zero).
PeroK said:
You claim to have a set of infinite extent. But, you are unable to find any two points whose distance is non-zero. This is a contradiction.
No, it isn't. It simply says that this...
PeroK said:
You can't talk about distances unless you have a valid metric. And, in the limit, you no longer have a valid metric.
...is correct in the sense that there is no valid Riemannian metric on the infinite set of points at ##t = 0## constructed by the method I described above. But you do have a valid manifold, because having a valid manifold does not require having a valid Riemannian metric. And you do have a perfectly well-defined mathematical formula that assigns the value zero to the integral ##\int \int \int a(t = 0) dx dy dz## over this manifold. And this formula is derived from a thingie that looks like a metric, just not a Riemannian one.
So at this point we have a situation which, although describable consistently using math, has no description in ordinary language that really does justice to it.