How Do You Calculate This Double Summation?

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The discussion centers on calculating the double summation e^{-(a+b)}∑_{n=0}^{\infty} (a^n/n!) ∑_{m=0}^{n} (b^m/m!). Participants suggest that the expression resembles a binomial expansion and recommend rearranging the summation for simplification. One approach involves evaluating the sums separately, while another suggests summing over different variables or using diagonal summation methods. The conversation highlights the complexity of the problem and the potential for computational assistance in solving such expressions. Ultimately, the participants emphasize the importance of understanding the convergence and structure of the summation.
sabbagh80
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Hi,

Can every body solve this problem in terms of a and b.

e^{-(a+b)}\sum _{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{a^n}{n!} \sum_{m=0}^{n}\frac{b^m}{m!}

Thanks in advance for your participation.
 
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hi sabbagh80! :smile:

hmm … looks a bit like a binomial expansion, doesn't it? :rolleyes:

it's over all pairs (m,n) with m ≤ n

try rearranging the ∑∑ into a ∑∑ over different variables :wink:
 
I mean that is it possible to further simplify this expression or maybe rewrite it by a more known functions. Because computing this expression in a long loop is time consuming process. isn't it?
 
sabbagh80 said:
I mean that is it possible to further simplify this expression …

yes … try rearranging the ∑∑ into a ∑∑ over different variables :smile:
 
Are you meaning
*. e^−(a+b) * ( ∑a^n/n!) (∑b^m/m!)
or
**. e^−(a+b) * ∑ (a^n/n! (∑b^m/m!) )

For *, we can evaluate each sum separately, then multiply the result. Hint: try a power series formula sheet. * simplifies beautifully.

I suspect you mean **, where the b_m/m! sum gets evaluated first. Then multiplied by a single "a" term.

Arggh, almost had it until I realized the sum b^m/m! is not an infinite number of terms, but n terms.
 
tiny-tim said:
yes … try rearranging the ∑∑ into a ∑∑ over different variables :smile:

Can everybody show me how could I do the above suggestion?
 
nickalh said:
Are you meaning
*. e^−(a+b) * ( ∑a^n/n!) (∑b^m/m!)
or
**. e^−(a+b) * ∑ (a^n/n! (∑b^m/m!) )

For *, we can evaluate each sum separately, then multiply the result. Hint: try a power series formula sheet. * simplifies beautifully.

I suspect you mean **, where the b_m/m! sum gets evaluated first. Then multiplied by a single "a" term.

Arggh, almost had it until I realized the sum b^m/m! is not an infinite number of terms, but n terms.

What is your meaning, I am confused!
 
Let me first say that even with tinytim's suggestion, I still haven't figured this out!

Anyway, the idea is straightforward enough. If we sketch out the area over which you are summing with m on the horizontal axis and n on the vertical, then we see the sum is taken over all pairs (m,n) on or above the line m=n (or the line y=x if that is any clearer). Now at the moment, your sum is calculated by picking a value for n and then summing the first n terms of bm. So, using our picture, you're summing horizontally. However, you could also sum vertically, or by diagonals parallel to the line m=n or by diagonals parallel to m=-n.

That said, I'm not sure which method will make things easier, though tinytim's comment makes me think it might be the last one I mentioned...
 
hi spamiam! :smile:
spamiam said:
… though tinytim's comment makes me think it might be the last one I mentioned...

yup …

instead of summing over all values of m and n,

sum over all values of m and m+n :wink:
 
  • #10
sabbagh80 said:
Hi,

Can every body solve this problem in terms of a and b.

e^{-(a+b)}\sum _{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{a^n}{n!} \sum_{m=0}^{n}\frac{b^m}{m!}

Thanks in advance for your participation.

ok. didn`t see the `n`.
 
Last edited:
  • #11
matphysik said:
Answer =1.

It is a cute joke!
m is from 0 to n not to infinity.
by the way, thanks for your participation.
 
  • #12
sabbagh80 said:
Hi,

Can every body solve this problem in terms of a and b.

e^{-(a+b)}\sum _{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{a^n}{n!} \sum_{m=0}^{n}\frac{b^m}{m!}

Thanks in advance for your participation.
The outline of the derivation is as follows:
First, check that the double sum converges!

Next, the summation from m=0 to m=n. Rewrite this as the difference of the summation from m=0 to ∞ and the summation from m=n+1 to ∞. The first member of this difference is eᵇ. For the 2nd member set p:=m-(n+1), where p runs from zero to ∞.

We may differentiate this 2nd member (n+1) times (= eᵇ). Then (indefinite) integrate this (n+1) times to get,

(*)- eᵇ + c₁bⁿ/n! + c₂bⁿ⁻¹/(n-1)! +...+cⁿ⁺¹,

where the `c` are integration constants which may all be set equal to unity.

Last, multiply Σaⁿ/n! with each term of (*) and sum each resulting term to get the result.

NOTE: Nobody cares about making computations such as this by hand anymore. They do this by computer.

Addendum: See, for example, the work of Doron Zeilberger.
 
Last edited:

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