The only thing I can think of is that if two polynomials are equal for all x, then they have the same degree and corresponding coeffcients are equal.
If [itex]a_0+ a_1x+ a_2x^2+[/itex][itex]+ \cdot\cdot\cdot\+ a_nx^n=[/itex][itex]b_0+ b_1x+ b_2x^2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ b_nx^n[/itex] for all x, then we must have
[itex](a_0- b_0)+ (a_1- b_1)x[/itex][itex]+ (a_2- b_2)x^2+[/itex][itex]\cdot\cdot\cdot+ (a_n- b_n)x^n= 0[/itex] so it is sufficient to show that if
[itex]a_0+ a_1x+ a_2x^2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ a_nx^n= 0[/itex] for all x then [itex]a_0= a_1= a_2= \cdot\cdot\cdot= a_n= 0[/itex]. That is, prove that the functions, [itex]1[/itex], [itex]x[/itex], [itex]x^2[/itex], ..., [itex]x^n[/itex] are "independent".
One way to do that is to take n different values for x, say x= 0, 1, 2, ..., n, to get n equations to solve and show that those equations are independent: x= 0 gives [itex]a_0= 0[/itex] so that's easy, x= 1 gives [itex]a_0+ a_1+ a_2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ a_n= 0[/itex], x= 2 gives [itex]a_0+ 2a_1+ 4a_2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot 2^n a_n= 0[/itex], etc.
More sophisticated but simpler is to note that if [itex]a_0+ a_1x+ a_2x^2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ a_nx^n= 0[/itex] for all x, then it is a constant so its derivative, [itex]a_1+ 2a_2x+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ na_nx^{n-1}[/itex] i also equal to 0 for all x and so its derivative if 0 for all x, etc. Setting x= 0 in the formula for the polynomial and all of its derivatives gives [itex]a_0= 0[/itex], [itex]a_1= 0[/itex], [itex]2a_2= 0[/itex], ..., [itex]n! a_n= 0[/itex] which again say that all coefficients are 0.