How Do You Prove Equivalence of Two Polynomials?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the equivalence of two real polynomials in one variable, specifically addressing the conditions under which two polynomials are considered equal. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and conceptual clarification related to polynomial properties.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • Jeremy seeks a proof for the equivalence of two real polynomials, expressing confusion over the definition provided by his teacher.
  • Another participant questions the specifics of the "equivalence statement" that Jeremy refers to.
  • A participant suggests that if two polynomials are equal for all x, they must have the same degree and equal corresponding coefficients, proposing that proving the independence of the functions 1, x, x^2, ..., x^n is necessary.
  • This participant outlines a method involving substituting n different values for x to create a system of equations, which could demonstrate the independence of the polynomial coefficients.
  • Additionally, they mention a more sophisticated approach using derivatives, stating that if a polynomial is zero for all x, then its derivatives must also be zero, leading to the conclusion that all coefficients must be zero.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

The discussion does not reach a consensus, as it primarily consists of Jeremy's request for help and the subsequent suggestions provided by another participant. There is no explicit agreement or disagreement on a specific proof method.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes various methods proposed for proving polynomial equivalence, but it does not resolve which method is preferable or fully correct. The assumptions regarding polynomial independence and the implications of derivatives are not fully explored or agreed upon.

jeremy22511
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Can somebody prove the equivalence statement of two real polynomials in one variable x for me? My Math teacher just told us to remember it as a definition and so I didn't get any proof for it; I attempted to prove it myself and ended up confusing myself with a lot of symbols.

So, can somebody help me with this?

Thanks
Jeremy
 
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So, what exactly does this "equivalence statement" state?
 
The only thing I can think of is that if two polynomials are equal for all x, then they have the same degree and corresponding coeffcients are equal.

If a_0+ a_1x+ a_2x^2++ \cdot\cdot\cdot\+ a_nx^n=b_0+ b_1x+ b_2x^2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ b_nx^n for all x, then we must have
(a_0- b_0)+ (a_1- b_1)x+ (a_2- b_2)x^2+\cdot\cdot\cdot+ (a_n- b_n)x^n= 0 so it is sufficient to show that if
a_0+ a_1x+ a_2x^2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ a_nx^n= 0 for all x then a_0= a_1= a_2= \cdot\cdot\cdot= a_n= 0. That is, prove that the functions, 1, x, x^2, ..., x^n are "independent".

One way to do that is to take n different values for x, say x= 0, 1, 2, ..., n, to get n equations to solve and show that those equations are independent: x= 0 gives a_0= 0 so that's easy, x= 1 gives a_0+ a_1+ a_2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ a_n= 0, x= 2 gives a_0+ 2a_1+ 4a_2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot 2^n a_n= 0, etc.

More sophisticated but simpler is to note that if a_0+ a_1x+ a_2x^2+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ a_nx^n= 0 for all x, then it is a constant so its derivative, a_1+ 2a_2x+ \cdot\cdot\cdot+ na_nx^{n-1} i also equal to 0 for all x and so its derivative if 0 for all x, etc. Setting x= 0 in the formula for the polynomial and all of its derivatives gives a_0= 0, a_1= 0, 2a_2= 0, ..., n! a_n= 0 which again say that all coefficients are 0.
 
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Thanks. That really helped.

Jeremy
 

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