How do you simplify a binomial expansion of (1 + √(2/(n-1)))^n?

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How do you expand and simplify [tex](1 + \sqrt\frac{2}{n-1})^n[/tex]?

I know this involves a binomial expansion and I can expand it to look something like

[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}n&0\end{array}\right){\frac{2}{n-1}}^\frac{0}{2} + \left(\begin{array}{c}n&1\end{array}\right){\frac{2}{n-1}}^\frac{1}{2} + ...[/tex]

but how do you simplify this?
 
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Hmm. How can I solve the following problem then?

n is a positive integer. Prove that:

[tex]n^\frac{1}{n} < 1 + \sqrt\frac{2}{n-1}[/tex]

I also need to show that [tex]n^\frac{1}{n} \rightarrow 1[/tex] as [tex]n \rightarrow \infty[/tex]. I know this follows logically from the fact that [tex]\frac{1}{n} \rightarrow 0[/tex]as [tex]n \rightarrow \infty[/tex]. Is there a more rigorous way for showing this?

Also, what is the maximum value of [tex]n^\frac{1}{n}[/tex]?
 
Do you know calculus??If u did,then
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} n^{\frac{1}{n}}=\alpha[/tex](1)
U need to show that \alpha=1.
Take natural logarithm from both sides.Then
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} \frac{1}{n}\ln n =\ln\alpha[/tex] (2)

The first limit is zero (you can show that considering the function [\itex] \frac{\ln x}{x} [/itex] and using L'Ho^spital rule.
THerefore [itex]\ln\alpha=0 \Rightarrow \alpha=1[/itex].

Daniel.
 
I've never studied L'Hospital's Rule before (I just finished Grade 10). However, I just looked it up on the internet, and I do understand how it works, but not why it works.

Is this problem solvable?

If n is a positive integer, prove that:
[tex]n^\frac{1}{n} < 1 + \sqrt\frac{2}{n-1}[/tex]
 
recon said:
I've never studied L'Hospital's Rule before (I just finished Grade 10). However, I just looked it up on the internet, and I do understand how it works, but not why it works.
L'Hospitals rule is relatively easy to prove using the definitions of limit and derivative.

Is this problem solvable?

If n is a positive integer, prove that:
[tex]n^\frac{1}{n} < 1 + \sqrt\frac{2}{n-1}[/tex]
If n=1 then there are some problems with this.
For n bigger than 1, you've almost got the proof.

Here's something you might find useful:
[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}a&b\end{array}\right) = \frac{a!}{b!(a-b)!}[/tex]
Specifically
[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}n&0\end{array}\right) = 1[/tex]
[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}n&1\end{array}\right) = n[/tex]
and
[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}n&2\end{array}\left) = \frac{(n-1)(n-2)}{2}}[/tex]
 
NateTG said:
If n=1 then there are some problems with this.
For n bigger than 1, you've almost got the proof.

Here's something you might find useful:
[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}a&b\end{array}\right) = \frac{a!}{b!(a-b)!}[/tex]
Specifically
[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}n&0\end{array}\right) = 1[/tex]
[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}n&1\end{array}\right) = n[/tex]
and
[tex]\left(\begin{array}{c}n&2\end{array}\left) = \frac{(n-1)(n-2)}{2}}[/tex]

Do you mean that I have to expand [tex](1 + \sqrt\frac{2}{n-1})^n[/tex]? It's the square root that is confusing me. I can't get rid of it.
 
Putting the question in another form, how do I proof that [tex]\sqrt{\frac{2}{n-1}}[/tex] decreases in value slower than [tex]{n^{{\frac{1}{n}}}-1[/tex] as n increases?