How Do You Solve This Tricky Limit Involving Cosine and x Squared?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit of the expression involving cosine and x squared as x approaches zero. Participants explore various approaches to solve the limit, including the squeeze theorem and properties of cosine functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents the limit expression lim x^2 cos^2(x^-2) as x approaches 0 and expresses uncertainty about the approach to solve it.
  • Another participant suggests using the squeeze theorem, noting that -1 < cos(1/x) < 1, leading to the conclusion that the limit should approach 0.
  • A participant questions the validity of applying the squeeze theorem due to the behavior of 1/x as x approaches 0.
  • Some participants assert that the inequality -1 ≤ cos(θ) ≤ 1 holds for any θ, including θ = 1/x^2, and argue that this leads to the limit approaching 0.
  • There is a discussion about whether the same reasoning applies when considering cos^2(x^-2), with some participants affirming that 0 ≤ cos^2(θ) ≤ 1 for all θ simplifies the analysis.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the application of the squeeze theorem and the implications of using cos^2(x^-2). There is no consensus on the best approach to solve the limit.

Contextual Notes

Some participants highlight the need for careful consideration of the behavior of the cosine function as x approaches 0, particularly regarding the limits of the arguments involved.

yangxu
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Hi all,

My girlfriend asked me this question just now, however I have no idea how I should approach to solve it, I highly appreciate if anyone could shed lights on this:

lim x^2 times cos^2(x^-2)
x->0

I tried using the squeeze theorem:

-1 < cos(1/x) < 1
thus:
-x^2 < x^2 (cos(1/x)) < x^2
or
-x^2 cos(1/x) < x^2 (cos^2(x^-2)) < x^2 cos(1/x)
Therefore, as x->0 in the middle, the two sides also approach 0.

But I don't think it makes any sense... since 1/x as x-> 0 cannot really be used as part of the intervals representing -1 and 1.

I also tried rearranging cos^2 (x^-2), but I don't think it's any use.

Please enlighten on this, thanks in advance.
 
Last edited:
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calc 1 or 2?

is your problem

[tex]x^2\cos^2({\frac{1}{x^2}})[/tex]
 
-1<cos(theta) <1 for any value of theta

so x^2 * cos (theta)->0 as x -> 0

What's wrong with that?
 
[itex]-1\le cos(\theta)\le 1[/itex] even when [itex]\theta= 1/x^2[/itex]! That's christianjb's point.
 
Thank you for your replies, guys.

rocophysics:
Yes, that's the correct output of the question. I haven't done calculus for a long time, but I believe it's calc 1.

christianjib & HallsofIvy:
But if it's cos^2 (x^-2), can you still apply the same rule?
 
Actually, in that case, it's easier: [itex]0\le cos^2(\theta)\le 1[/itex] for all [itex]\theta[/itex]!
 
HallsofIvy said:
Actually, in that case, it's easier: [itex]0\le cos^2(\theta)\le 1[/itex] for all [itex]\theta[/itex]!

Wow, never thought of that, thanks so much HallsofIvy. :D
 

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