How Does Anharmonic Perturbation Affect the Mean Position of a Particle?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the effects of anharmonic perturbation on the mean position of a particle described by a potential that includes both harmonic and cubic terms. Participants are exploring how the mean position changes with the energy of the eigenstates when the perturbation is small, specifically using first-order perturbation theory.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the cubic perturbation on the energy eigenvalues and the mean position of the particle. There are attempts to calculate the mean position and considerations of how the perturbation affects the eigenstates. Questions are raised about the relevance of certain calculations to the original question.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing with various approaches being considered. Some participants suggest calculating the mean position directly, while others propose examining the expanded eigenkets to find the expectation value. There is no explicit consensus on the best approach, but multiple lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of perturbation theory and its application to the problem, with some expressing uncertainty about the relevance of their calculations to the question posed. The discussion reflects a range of interpretations regarding the role of the perturbation in affecting the mean position.

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Homework Statement


Particle bound by
V = \frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 x^2 - a x^3
for small x. Show that the mean position of the particle changes with the energy of the eigenstates when a is small, so first order perturbation theory works.

Homework Equations


For the harmonic oscillator
x = \sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}(a^{\dagger}+a)


The Attempt at a Solution


That x^3 perturbation will give an odd number of creation/destruction operators, so there's no shift in energy eigenvalues to first order in perturbation theory. But how does that help answering the question?
 
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There is a first order transition, but it is between different energy states.
 
But how does that help answering the question?
 
Noone have any ideas on this?
 
I'm not going to give up on this! The question asks to calculate the mean position of the particle, so if I do that:
<x> = \sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}<n|a^{\dagger}+a|n> = 0
That's just zero, haveing nothing to do with energy eigernstates or size of a?

Sure I could calculate the perturbated energy to second order, getting terms like
a^2 \big( \frac{\hbar}{2m\omega} \big)^3 <n|a^{\dagger} aa \frac{1}{E_n-H_0} a^{\dagger} a a^{\dagger} |n> = -n(n+1)^2 \frac{\hbar^2 a^2}{8m^3 \omega^4}
and so on, but I don't see how that has anyhting to do with the question asked.
 
Shouldn't you consider the expanded eigenkets?

| n > = |n^{(0)}>+\lambda |n^{(1)}> + \lambda^2 |n^{(2)}> + \dots

Then you get to first order something like:

<x> = < n^{(0)} | x | n^{(0)} > + \lambda \left( < n^{(0)} | x | n^{(1)} > + < n^{(1)} | x | n^{(0)} > \right)+ \mathcal{O} (\lambda^2) = \lambda \left( < n^{(0)} | x | n^{(1)} > + < n^{(1)} | x | n^{(0)} > \right)+ \mathcal{O} (\lambda^2)

Could that be the correct approach?
 
Last edited:
I think that you don't really have to solve for the corrected energy's. You need the new eigenkets, and then just solve for the expectation value, <x>, by taking the inner product of x and the eigenkets.
 

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