How Does Applying a Force Change an Object's Velocity?

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Applying a 12N force in the negative direction to a 1kg object moving at 3m/s results in a change in velocity over 2 seconds. The impulse formula is essential for solving this problem, as it relates force, time, and change in momentum. The equation F = ma can be rearranged to find the final velocity after the force is applied. The initial velocity (u) is 3m/s, and the force will reduce this velocity due to the negative direction of the applied force. Therefore, the final velocity can be calculated using the impulse approach, leading to a new velocity after 2 seconds.
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If a 1kg object is moving at 3m/s in a positive direction, and a 12N force is applied in the negative direction, what is the velocity immediately after 2s?

I'm fairly sure this will be a variation of relevant momentum equations, and/or mixed with kinematics, yet I'm not seeing the correct application. I lean towards answers c or b.

Obviously mo will be conserved.


conservation of mo: m1Vi= (m1+m2)vf t=v/a



a. 12m/s
b. 6 m/s
c. 3 m/s
d. 0 m/s

Please explain.
 
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I'm afraid you can't use conservation of momentum here - that only applies in the absence of an external force (in the relevant direction), and here the problem says there's a 12 N force. Do you know any other way you might go about solving this?
 
What you need is the impulse formula. Whenever time is involved for a force it's almost always Impulse.

Definition: The Impulse (I) imparted onto a body is the change in it's momentum. Impulse is a vector quantity.

Derivation: F = ma

F = m (v-u)/t
F = mv - mu /t
Ft = mv -mu
Unit is obviously Newton seconds.
 
Yes, I do believe this is on the right track, so thanks, but

I believe I'm remiss in something. What is u?

I'm recalling something like...Ft=mvf-mvi (change in p)
 
Last edited:
u = initial velocity
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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