How Does Modulo Arithmetic Prove a Combinatorial Identity Involving Primes?

  • Context: MHB 
  • Thread starter Thread starter evinda
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around proving the combinatorial identity involving binomial coefficients and primes, specifically the congruence relation $$\binom{p-1}{k} \equiv (-1)^k \pmod p$$ for a prime $p \neq 2$ and integer $k$ within the range $0 \leq k \leq p-1$. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and exploration of modulo arithmetic.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes to calculate $$\binom{p-1}{k}k!$$ and relates it to Wilson's theorem, questioning the modulo $p$ equivalence of $(p-(k+1))!$.
  • Another participant suggests a method to express $$\binom{p-1}{k}$$ in terms of products involving $p$ and negative integers, leading to the conclusion that it simplifies to $$(-1)^k \pmod p$$.
  • Subsequent replies affirm the proposed method and express satisfaction with the reasoning presented.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to agree on the validity of the proposed approach and the resulting equivalence, with no explicit disagreement noted.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions regarding the properties of factorials and modular arithmetic are implicit in the discussion, and the steps leading to the conclusion may depend on specific interpretations of modulo operations.

evinda
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,741
Reaction score
0
Hey again! (Blush)

If $p \neq 2$ is a prime and $0 \leq k \leq p-1, \text{ prove that: }$
$$\binom{p-1}{k} \equiv (-1)^k \pmod p$$

I thought that I could calculate $\binom{p-1}{k}k!$ :

$$\binom{p-1}{k}k!=\frac{(p-1)!}{k!(p-(k+1))!}k!=\frac{(p-1)!}{(p-(k+1))!}$$

According to Wilson's theorem, $(p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod p$..
But...what is equal $\mod p$ to $(p-(k+1))!$ ? (Thinking)
 
Last edited:
Mathematics news on Phys.org
evinda said:
Hey again! (Blush)

If $p \neq 2$ is a prime and $0 \leq k \leq p-1, \text{ prove that: }$
$$\binom{p-1}{k} \equiv (-1)^k \pmod p$$

I thought that I could calculate $\binom{p-1}{k}k!$ :

$$\binom{p-1}{k}k!=\frac{(p-1)!}{k!(p-(k+1))!}k!=\frac{(p-1)!}{(p-(k+1))!}$$

According to Wilson's theorem, $(p-1)! \equiv -1 \pmod p$..
But...what is equal $\mod p$ to $(p-(k+1))!$ ? (Thinking)

Could I show it maybe like that?

$$ \binom{p-1}{k}=\frac{(p-1)!}{k!(p-(k+1))!}=\frac{(p-k)(p-k+1) \cdots (p-1)}{k!} \equiv \frac{(p-1) \cdots (p-k+1)(p-k)}{k!} \equiv \frac{(-1) \cdots (-k+1)(-k)}{k!} \equiv \frac{(-1)^k k!}{k!} \equiv (-1)^k \pmod p $$ ?
(Nerd)
 
evinda said:
Could I show it maybe like that?

$$ \binom{p-1}{k}=\frac{(p-1)!}{k!(p-(k+1))!}=\frac{(p-k)(p-k+1) \cdots (p-1)}{k!} \equiv \frac{(p-1) \cdots (p-k+1)(p-k)}{k!} \equiv \frac{(-1) \cdots (-k+1)(-k)}{k!} \equiv \frac{(-1)^k k!}{k!} \equiv (-1)^k \pmod p $$ ?
(Nerd)

Looks good! (Nod)
 
I like Serena said:
Looks good! (Nod)

Nice,thank you very much! (Happy)
 

Similar threads

Replies
6
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 96 ·
4
Replies
96
Views
12K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
4K