How Does Terminal Velocity Arise in Fluid Dynamics?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding terminal velocity in the context of fluid dynamics, specifically focusing on the forces acting on a falling object, such as a sphere in water. Participants explore the relationship between gravitational force and resistive forces, leading to a differential equation describing the object's motion.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the formulation of the net force acting on the object and the resulting differential equation. There is an exploration of how to derive the equation for terminal velocity, with some questioning the integration process and the interpretation of variables.

Discussion Status

Some participants express understanding of the concepts involved, while others are still grappling with the mathematical derivation. Guidance has been offered regarding the nature of resistive forces and the approach to integration, although multiple interpretations of the equations are being explored.

Contextual Notes

There is an indication that participants are working within the constraints of their current knowledge of integration and differential equations, which may affect their ability to fully articulate the derivation of terminal velocity.

Gear300
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heheh...I need some help understanding something. If there was an object, such as a sphere, in water, gravity would be pushing it downwards, while a resistive force R = -bv would be pushing it upward (b as a constant).

that would imply that the net Force Fy would be
Fy = mg - bv = ma = m(dv/dt)

dv/dt = g - (b/m)v

How do I come up with

v = (mg/b)(1 - e^(-bt/m))
 
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Have you learned integration? That's how you get the final eqn.

The force R is a resistive force, acting against the direction of motion, and not necessarily pushing it up. But if the body is falling vertically downward, of course it is acting upward.
 
I see...I've learned integration, but I'm still just tipping it.

I was just thinking that using dv/dt = g - (b/m)v could be rearranged for v = (mg/b)(1-(a/g)), in which dv/dt = acceleration = a. After that, I would somehow have to state that (a/g) = e^(-bt/m)...which I apparently didn't do.

Actually...nevermind...I get what's being said. The terminal velocity (when the net force is 0N) is only approached, not touched, in which the terminal velocity = (mg/b). So, the equation changes a bit.
 
Last edited:
I'm glad you got the essence of it. In practice, the actual velocity gets indistinguishably close to the terminal velocity within a very short time, depending, of course on b/m. The higher this ratio is, the faster it happens.
 

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