How Does the Dirac Equation Utilize Component Functions in Its Derivation?

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The discussion focuses on the derivation of the Dirac equation using component functions, specifically the left-handed and right-handed components, denoted as ##\phi^{(L)}## and ##\phi^{(R)}##. The equations presented, ##(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} - i \hbar \sigma \cdot \nabla) \phi^{(R)} = mc \phi^{(L)}## and ##(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} + i \hbar \sigma \cdot \nabla)\phi^{(L)} = mc \phi^{(R)}##, are foundational to understanding the relationship between these components. The user expresses initial confusion but ultimately clarifies their understanding of the derivation process after further analysis. The discussion references Richard Feynman's work on Quantum Electrodynamics (QED) as a potential source for clearer explanations.

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exponent137
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In
https://quantummechanics.ucsd.edu/ph130a/130_notes/node45.html
after
"Instead of an equation which is second order in the time derivative, we can make a first order equation, like the Schrödinger equation, by extending this equation to four components."

it is evident that the solution is obtained with help of ##a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)##

I cannot follow in this derivation, how rows ##\phi^{(L)}=...## and ##\phi^{(R)}=...## are used. Maybe more steps instead of these two rows will help.

Although I think that Feynman once described this more clearly in his book about QED.

Can someone, please, gives a link or more clearly explains this type of derivation of Dirac equation?
 
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I'm not sure what your point of confusion is. Do you understand that the following equations are true, by definition of ##\phi^{(R)}## and ##\phi^{(L)}## (plus the fact that ##\phi## obeys the second-order equation)?

##(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} - i \hbar \sigma \cdot \nabla) \phi^{(R)} = mc \phi^{(L)}##

##(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} + i \hbar \sigma \cdot \nabla)\phi^{(L)} = mc \phi^{(R)}##
 
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stevendaryl said:
I'm not sure what your point of confusion is. Do you understand that the following equations are true, by definition of ##\phi^{(R)}## and ##\phi^{(L)}## (plus the fact that ##\phi## obeys the second-order equation)?

##(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} - i \hbar \sigma \cdot \nabla) \phi^{(R)} = mc \phi^{(L)}##

##(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} + i \hbar \sigma \cdot \nabla)\phi^{(L)} = mc \phi^{(R)}##

If I put the second equation in the first one, I obtain:

##(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} - i \hbar \sigma \cdot \nabla)(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t}+ i \hbar \sigma \cdot \nabla)\phi^{(L)} = (mc)^2 \phi^{(L)}##

One problem is solved, I think that now I understand this derivation of these two rows, as I mentioned. Thanks.

I think that Feynman used this type of calculation, as you wrote. But I think that he continued I little bit more cleary that in my link?
 

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