Dr.Maurice Messages 2 Reaction score 0 Thread starter May 4, 2015 #1 How does the wavefunction propagate for infinitesimal times? Please no Feynman path integral arguments!
How does the wavefunction propagate for infinitesimal times? Please no Feynman path integral arguments!
Dr.Maurice Messages 2 Reaction score 0 May 4, 2015 #2 The midpoint rules are false (Makri, Miller, me)
rumborak Messages 706 Reaction score 154 May 4, 2015 #3 I may be misunderstanding the question, but are you asking the QM version of Zeno's paradox?