Ok, but still it does not really make sense for a measured value of 0.
Consider the definition uncertainty/measured value. The fractional uncertainty is 50% for 2+/-1 and 11.1% for 9+/1. If I change the uncertainty, ex 2, then it is 100% for 2+/-2 and 22.2% for 9+/-2. So it is kinda intuitive. As the measured value is much bigger than the uncertainty, the fractional uncertainty decreases. For a measured value of 0, the definition breaks, whatever the uncertainty. But I can say intuitively that for 0+/-1 the 'fractional uncertainty' (whatever its definition is) should be smaller than for 0+/-100. Right?
Consider the definition measured value/uncertainty. Whatever the uncertainty is, if the measured value is 0, then the fractional uncertainty is 0 always. But clearly there is a difference between having 0+/-1 or even 0+/-0.001 and having 0+/-100.
In the first case the fractional uncertainty is not defined, but in the second case it is 0. Intuitively there should be a difference between 0+/-1 and 0+/-100. And the definition must capture this difference.
For me there is no difference between having a zero result or an infinite result for a measured value of 0. The two definitions could work just as fine. What I am interested in is a definition that says "as the difference between the uncertainty and the measured value of 0 is larger and larger, the fractional uncertainty becomes larger and larger''. Maybe the definition could be: uncertainty/(measured value + 1)