Redbelly98 said:
I think it's a reasonable assumption, or at least what is required to get the answer given in post #1.
Well, all of the assumptions/approximations are required to get the given answer.
Absorption or scattering losses in a good quality optical glass would indeed be negligible.
If you don't mind exploring this a bit further--I think your statement here is a bit circular in its logic. Absorption or scattering losses being negligible is what we mean by high quality glass. When we say "good quality optical glass" that means two things: the glass has a very low extinction coefficient for a range of frequencies due to its makeup/manufacturing; and also that we are using frequencies of light for which it is very transparent (in that range for which the coefficients are low).
(Of course I am considering UV light as "light", which is a matter of definition of which an infinite amount of argument could be had!)
My point is that setting [itex]n_{\rm air}\approx 1[/itex] is almost "universally" good in the sense that I believe it would be very unusual to have a case in which the error in making this approximation would be large.
However, I think it would be easy to find types of glass and/or frequencies of light that would give a huge error in the given formula. We have to specify the glass and specify the light frequency--namely, the high quality optical glass you mention in your post and probably visible light (to cover the majority of glasses).
(I'm also not sure about setting [itex]\mu_{\rm glass}\approx\mu_0[/itex]; I don't know if there are common types of glass for which this is a bad approximation. I don't think there would be.)
But I have to say I am definitely no expert in the properties of glass! If you think what I have written is wrong I'd appreciate you letting me know.