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How is the negative binomial the inverse of the binomial distribution?

  1. Sep 10, 2007 #1


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    Gold Member

    Can anyone give a user-friendly explanation?


    We see that the binomial distribution measures the probability of X successes after n trials, whereas the negative binomial measures the probability of the trial number after the Xth success. The question is - how does this relate to an inverse? How would the word "inverse" simplify the analogy?
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 10, 2007 #2


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    It is not an inverse in the usual sense that g-1(g(x)) = x.
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