How is the negative binomial the inverse of the binomial distribution?

  • Thread starter Simfish
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  • #1
Simfish
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Main Question or Discussion Point

Can anyone give a user-friendly explanation?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Negative_binomial_distribution#Properties

We see that the binomial distribution measures the probability of X successes after n trials, whereas the negative binomial measures the probability of the trial number after the Xth success. The question is - how does this relate to an inverse? How would the word "inverse" simplify the analogy?
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
EnumaElish
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It is not an inverse in the usual sense that g-1(g(x)) = x.
 

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