Hi, I think I am stuck in my understanding of "inverse" probability distributions.

This is a question I would like to have help understanding.

I want to figure out the

Denote the probability of success per trial as

I know that for a fixed number of trials

Let's say the probability of success is 1:10 (

If I get say

Thanks in advance

This is a question I would like to have help understanding.

I want to figure out the

**distribution of number of trials for a given fixed number of successes and given probability for success**for Bernoulli trials.Denote the probability of success per trial as

**p**, the number of successes as**s**, the number of trials**t**, I want to obtain the distribution of**t**if**p**and**s**are given/fixed.I know that for a fixed number of trials

**t**, I can get the probability distribution for number of successes**s**with the Binomial distribution, but can i "invert" it so to say?Let's say the probability of success is 1:10 (

**p = 0.10**).If I get say

**s = 20**of those events, is there a way to figure out a probability distribution of the number of trials**t**?Thanks in advance

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