MHB How is this inequality obtained?

Boromir
Messages
37
Reaction score
0
Introduction to Operator Theory and Invariant Subspaces - B. Beauzamy - Google BooksIn page 144 of this preview I don't know how they obtain the inequality in (1). It looked like cauchy schwarz but I don't think it is.

I also don't know how they connect the norm of the integral to the supremum of an inner product.

Finally, is it necessary to show the integral is bounded? Is that the motivation?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Re: integral inequality

Boromir said:
Introduction to Operator Theory and Invariant Subspaces - B. Beauzamy - Google BooksIn page 144 of this preview I don't know how they obtain the inequality in (1). It looked like cauchy schwarz but I don't think it is.

I also don't know how they connect the norm of the integral to the supremum of an inner product.

Finally, is it necessary to show the integral is bounded? Is that the motivation?
On my computer, the Google Books preview of this text only goes up to p.139. Please state the problem and its context more explicitly.
 
Re: integral inequality

Opalg said:
On my computer, the Google Books preview of this text only goes up to p.139. Please state the problem and its context more explicitly.

How can it be different for different computers?
 
Re: integral inequality

Boromir said:
How can it be different for different computers?

On my computer pages 144-151 are not shown in the preview. It would really be best if you took the time to state the problem yourself.
 
Re: integral inequality

Boromir said:
Opalg said:
On my computer, the Google Books preview of this text only goes up to p.139. Please state the problem and its context more explicitly.

How can it be different for different computers?
It depends entirely on what Google's server chooses to send to different users.
 
Here is what the inequality says. It seems like a bunch of notation is required to be explained to make sense of this. But it seems like Opalg said just CS inequality.

$$
\left| \left< (\int |f| ~ dE)x,y\right> \right|^2 \leq \left< (\int |f| ~ dE)x,x \right> \left< \int (|f| ~ dE)y,y\right> $$
 
I posted this question on math-stackexchange but apparently I asked something stupid and I was downvoted. I still don't have an answer to my question so I hope someone in here can help me or at least explain me why I am asking something stupid. I started studying Complex Analysis and came upon the following theorem which is a direct consequence of the Cauchy-Goursat theorem: Let ##f:D\to\mathbb{C}## be an anlytic function over a simply connected region ##D##. If ##a## and ##z## are part of...
Back
Top