How to care about only one particle in a two-particle system

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In a discussion about caring for only one particle in a two-particle system within a 1D infinite well, participants explore how to find the probability of locating a particle at a specific position while disregarding the second particle's position. The approach involves integrating over the entire range for one particle and from one edge of the well to the desired position for the other. It is noted that the single particle states are orthonormal, which simplifies the calculations, eliminating the need for complex integrals. The importance of normalization is emphasized, particularly when integrating over the defined range of the well. The conversation concludes with participants confirming their understanding and achieving legitimate solutions.
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Homework Statement
Consider the symmetry and antisymmetric two-particle wave functions for a one-dimensional box with impenetrable walls at x = +- L/2. One particle occupies the ground state, and the other occupies the first excited state.

What is the probability to find a particle at position x for either case if we do not care about the position of the second particle.
Relevant Equations
See below
So for the 1D infinite well with the states above, I have

## \psi_{symmetric} = \frac{2}{L} [sin[\frac{\pi x_1}{L}]sin[\frac{2\pi x_2}{L}] + sin[\frac{2\pi x_1}{L}]sin[\frac{\pi x_2}{L}]] ##
## \psi_{antisymmetric} = \frac{2}{L} [sin[\frac{\pi x_1}{L}]sin[\frac{2\pi x_2}{L}] - sin[\frac{2\pi x_1}{L}]sin[\frac{\pi x_2}{L}]]##

The question statement says to find the probability of finding a particle at a position ##x## for both cases if we "do not care about the position of the second particle". How do I do that? I thinking I might be able to simply integrate over the whole range for one particle, and then integrate from one edge of the well to the position x for the other? But I've never done anything like this and do not know.
 
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I believe you are on the right path. You don't actually need to do the integrals because you know the single particle states are orthonormal (the integrals either 0 or 1). So write it out carefully and see if it makes sense. This is a useful exercise.
 
Note that in this problem the well extends from x = -L/2 to x = L/2. In this case, the ground state is not of the form sin(πx/L).
 
I *just* saw that! Thank you. I have now have legitimate answers that preserve normalization when I integrate over everything. Thank you!
 

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