How to find/prove this two variable limit

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the limit of the function (x-y)/(x+y) as (x,y) approaches (0,0). Participants explore the conditions under which limits in multivariable calculus can be defined, particularly focusing on the implications of approaching the limit along different paths.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that the limit does not exist because approaching (0,0) along different paths yields different results, specifically zero along y=x and -1/3 along y=2x.
  • Another participant argues that without specifying the relationship between the variables, the limit is not well-defined, indicating that there are many possible limits.
  • Some participants emphasize that limits can be defined for functions of two variables without a relationship between them, but the order of approaching the limits matters.
  • A later reply reiterates that if the limit exists, it must be the same regardless of the path taken to approach the point (0,0), supporting the claim that the limit does not exist in this case.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express disagreement regarding the existence of the limit, with some asserting that it does not exist due to differing results along different paths, while others contend that the question is incomplete without specifying the relationship between the variables.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the importance of defining the relationship between variables when evaluating limits in multivariable calculus, as well as the potential for multiple limits depending on the approach taken.

ozone
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It has been a while since I have done limis now, and I want to make sure I am doing this correctly.

I have the problem listed below
[itex](x-y)/(x+y) as (x,y) -> (0,0)[/itex]

In my mind I can gather that it will asymptote as you approach from either (-1,1) or (1,-1)

I also know that it will asymptote in opposite directions, and as far as I know this is what defines a function to have "no limit".

I am just wondering what I need to state algebraicly in order to "prove" this limit.
 
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ozone said:
It has been a while since I have done limis now, and I want to make sure I am doing this correctly.

I have the problem listed below
[itex](x-y)/(x+y) as (x,y) -> (0,0)[/itex]

In my mind I can gather that it will asymptote as you approach from either (-1,1) or (1,-1)

I also know that it will asymptote in opposite directions, and as far as I know this is what defines a function to have "no limit".

I am just wondering what I need to state algebraicly in order to "prove" this limit.



Choose [itex]\,y=x\,[/itex] and the limit is zero, but now chose [itex]\,y=2x\,[/itex] and the limit then is [itex]\,\displaystyle{-\frac{1}{3}}[/itex]

Ergo: the limit doesn't exist.

DonAntonio
 
It doesn't mean anything to let two variables tend to a limit simultaneously unless you specify the relationship between them. This is different from there being no limit. It has many possible limits and the question is incompletely specified.
 
haruspex said:
It doesn't mean anything to let two variables tend to a limit simultaneously unless you specify the relationship between them. This is different from there being no limit. It has many possible limits and the question is incompletely specified.

Of course you can have limits of functions in two variables without having a relationship between them. This is basic multivariable calculus.
 
micromass said:
Of course you can have limits of functions in two variables without having a relationship between them. This is basic multivariable calculus.

No. You can define the limit of the function as one variable tends to some value, and the limit of that as the other variable tends to some value. That's taking the limits to be in a particular order. If you swap the order you might or might not get the same result. Each is perfectly well defined in itself, but if you don't specify the order, and don't specify a relationship between them for approaching the limits simultaneously, it is simply not defined.
 
haruspex said:
No. You can define the limit of the function as one variable tends to some value, and the limit of that as the other variable tends to some value. That's taking the limits to be in a particular order. If you swap the order you might or might not get the same result. Each is perfectly well defined in itself, but if you don't specify the order, and don't specify a relationship between them for approaching the limits simultaneously, it is simply not defined.

Did you take multivariable calculus??

For [itex]f:\mathbb{R}^2\rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/itex], we define [itex]\lim_{(x,y)\rightarrow (a,b)} f(x,y)=L[/itex] if

[tex]\forall \varepsilon >0: \exists \delta > 0: \forall (x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^2:~0<\|(x,y)-(a,b)\|_2<\delta~\Rightarrow~|f(x,y)-L|<\varepsilon[/tex]

where we of course define [itex]\|(x,y)\|_2=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}[/itex].
 
haruspex said:
No. You can define the limit of the function as one variable tends to some value, and the limit of that as the other variable tends to some value. That's taking the limits to be in a particular order. If you swap the order you might or might not get the same result. Each is perfectly well defined in itself, but if you don't specify the order, and don't specify a relationship between them for approaching the limits simultaneously, it is simply not defined.


Either you didn't study several variables calculus or you already forgot: if the limit [itex]\,\displaystyle{\lim_{(x,y)\to (x_0,y_0)}f(x,y)}\,[/itex] exists then by definition

it must exist and be the same no matter how the variables approach the point [itex]\,(x_0,y_0)\,[/itex], and this is why

my first post proves the limit wanted in the OP doesn't exist.

DonAntonio
 
Last edited:
I must have forgotten - sorry.
 

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