Not quite. Because multiplication of matrices is not commutative, taking the derivative you have to "symmetrize" Q- the derivative is [itex][(Q+Q^T)/2]x- b[/itex].
Look at the simple two dimensional situation:
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\begin{bmatrix}x & y \end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}a & b \\ c & d \end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}x \\ y\end{bmatrix}- \begin{bmatrix}e & f\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}x \\ y\end{bmatrix}[/tex]
[tex]= \frac{1}{2}ax^2+ \frac{b+ c}{2}xy+ \frac{1}{2}dy^2- ex- ey[/tex]
The "derivative with respect to x", since x is a vector, is the gradient:
[tex]\begin{bmatrix}ax+ \frac{b+c}{2}y- e & dy+ \frac{b+c}{2}x- f\end{bmatrix}[/tex]
[tex]= \begin{bmatrix}a & \frac{b+c}{2} \\ \frac{b+c}{2} & d\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}x \\ y\end{bmatrix}- \begin{bmatrix}e & f\end{bmatrix}[/tex]