By modulo arithmetic this is equivalent to a^{phi(m)}=1 (mod m) where I have assumed that a and m are relatively prime. This result is well-known, but if you want to prove it (and I suggest you to do this) I would suggest that you
1) prove it for primes (fermats little)
2) prove it for powers of primes (use 1) + binomial formula)
3) prove it by induction on m (split up m in relatively prime factors, if its not possible use 2) )
You should be familiar with the multiplicative properties of phi. It is also essential that you know the fact that if x = 1 mod a, x = 1 mod b, then x = 1 mod ab whenever a and b are relatively prime. This is easily verified.
alternatively you could follow the same lines as in the proof of fermats little.