1. Aug 5, 2010 #1

   jy02354441

   

   If a is congruent to b mod n and a^k−1 is congruent to b^k−1 mod n, then a^k is congruent to b^k mod n.? n>0 and k>1
   
   How to prove it by induction?

    

   jy02354441, Aug 5, 2010
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3. Aug 5, 2010 #2

   Office_Shredder

   

   Staff Emeritus

   Science Advisor

   Gold Member

   I'm assuming that's a^k-1 and not a^k-1. Do you know what the rules are for multiplication modulo n?

    

   Office_Shredder, Aug 5, 2010

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