How to Show Inner Products in Quantum Mechanics Using Fourier Transforms?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the equivalence of inner products in quantum mechanics using Fourier transforms. The original poster presents an integral expression involving wave functions and their Fourier transforms, seeking clarification on the steps to show the relationship between these forms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the substitution of integrals and the implications of using different variables for the Fourier transform. Questions arise regarding the cancellation of exponential terms and the use of the delta function in the context of the integrals.

Discussion Status

The conversation has progressed through various attempts to manipulate the integral expressions. Some participants have provided guidance on the use of the delta function and its role in simplifying the integrals. There is an acknowledgment of the correctness of certain steps, but no consensus on the final outcome has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of maintaining distinct variables in the integrals to avoid confusion and emphasize the properties of the delta function in the context of the problem.

v_pino
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Homework Statement


Given (\psi_1, \psi_2)=\int dx \psi_1^*(x) \psi_2(x), show (\psi_1, \psi_2)=\int dk \phi_1^*(k) \phi_2(k), where \phi_{1,2}(k)= \int dx \psi_k^*(x) \psi_{1,2}(x) and psi_k(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} e^{ikx}.

Homework Equations



\psi (x)= \int dk \phi(k) \psi_k(x)

\psi(x)=\int dk \phi(k) \psi_k(x)

The Attempt at a Solution



(\psi_1 , \psi_2)= \int dx \left \{ \int dk \phi_1^*(k) \psi_k^*(x) \right \}\left \{ \int dk \phi_2(k) \psi_k(x) \right \}

=\int dx \left \{ \int dk \phi_1^*(k) \frac{1}{\sqrt {2 \pi}}e^{-ikx} \int dk \phi_2(k) \frac{1}{\sqrt {2 \pi}}e^{ikx} \right \}

= \frac{1}{2 \pi}\int dx \left \{ \int dk \phi_1^*(k) \int dk \phi_2(k) \right \}

Is this correct so far? How do I proceed from here? It looks like a Fourier Transform with the 1/2pi. And I have two integrals within another one for the dx. Can I separate them some how?
 
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When you substitute in the integrals for \psi_1^*(x) and \psi_2(x), the k in one integral isn't the same variable as the k in the other integral. If you use the same variable for both, you're almost certainly going to confuse yourself. In this case, you can't cancel out the e^{-ikx} factor from one integral with e^{ikx} from the other.
 
=\int dx \left \{ \int dk_1 \phi_1^*(k_1) \frac{1}{\sqrt {2 \pi}}e^{-ik_1x} \int dk_2 \phi_2(k_2) \frac{1}{\sqrt {2 \pi}}e^{ik_2x} \right \}

I have revised my equation above. But now that the exponents don't cancel, how should I proceed with this?
 
You want to use the fact that \delta(k_1-k_2) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{i(k_1-k_2)x}\,dx
 
(\psi_1, \psi_2)=\delta(k_2-k_1) \int dk_1 \phi_1^*(k_1) \int dk_2 \phi_2(k_2)

Is the delta function equal to 1 in this case? And has the equation given in the problem (\psi_1, \psi_2)=\int dk \phi_1^*(k) \phi_2(k) combined k_1 and k_2?
 
The delta function depends on k1 and k2. You can't just pull it out front like that.

By using the delta function, you can perform one of the integrations. I suggest you read about the delta function to see how that works.
 
I obtained (\psi_1, \psi_2)=\int dk_2 \phi_2(k_2) \int dk_1 \phi_1^*(k_1) \delta(k_2-k_1) = \int dk_2 \phi_2(k_2) \phi_1^* (k_2) by using \psi(x)= \int dx' \psi(x') \delta(x-x')

Is it correct? Thanks for the help once again.
 
Yes, that's correct.
 

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