How to Show Sequence Convergence to 1/2 in Knopp's Book?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the convergence of a specific sequence to 1/2 as presented in Knopp's book "Theory and Applications of Infinite Series." Participants explore various methods to approach this problem, which involves logarithmic expressions and limits.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant describes an initial approach involving the expression of the sequence as a product and bounding it with upper and lower elements, leading to a limit that approaches exp(1/2).
  • Another participant introduces a function g(k,n) to analyze the logarithmic terms, showing that the contributions of certain terms vanish as n approaches infinity, thus supporting the convergence to 1/2.
  • A later reply highlights the use of the first-order Taylor expansion for logarithms, suggesting that this method naturally leads to the desired result, although the participant acknowledges that their approach may lack rigor.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express different methods and insights, but there is no consensus on a single "nicer" solution or definitive approach to the problem. Multiple competing views and techniques remain present in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

Some methods presented involve approximations and bounding techniques, which may depend on specific assumptions about the behavior of the terms as n increases. The discussion reflects varying degrees of rigor and mathematical justification among participants.

mikepol
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Hi,

I've been skimming through Knopp's book "Theory and Applications of Inifnite Series", mostly to get some practice with sequences/series. The problems there are pretty hard, I've been trying to do this one without much success. It is from Chapter 2, 15(b): show that the following sequence converges to 1/2

[tex]\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2}\right) + \log\left(1+\frac{2}{n^2}\right) + ... + \log\left(1+\frac{n}{n^2}\right)[/tex]

Does anyone have an idea how to do this?
 
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Oh! I've spent quite a lot of time on this problem, and right after I posted this I got a solution, but it's ugly, I'm not sure if Knopp would have liked it :)
Basically I expressed this as a product and then divided it into d groups, where d is some integer held constant for now. Each group then has n/d elements. Then I bounded the product above and below by approximating each group with its upper and lower element, and then took limit on n of each group. Then as d is taken larger and larger, the two bounds become tighter and approach exp(1/2). So if P_n is the product appearing when all logs are conglomerated together, and for fixed d:

[tex]\left(1+\frac{1}{n^2}\right)^{n/d} \left(1+\frac{1}{dn}\right)^{n/d} \ldots \left(1+\frac{(d-1)}{dn}\right)^{n/d} < P_n < \left(1+\frac{1}{dn}\right)^{n/d} \ldots \left(1+\frac{d}{dn}\right)^{n/d}[/tex]

And then take limit on n, with d fixed constant, so can take limit of each product individually:

[tex]e^{1/d^2} e^{2/d^2} \ldots e^{(d-1)/d^2} < P_n < e^{1/d^2} \ldots e^{d/d^2}[/tex]

[tex]\exp(\frac{d-1}{2d}) < P_n < \exp(\frac{d+1}{2d})[/tex]

So as d is taken larger and larger, the two sides approach exp(1/2), and log of that will give 1/2.

Can anyone come up with a nicer solution?
 
Define

[tex]g(k,n)=\log\left[1+\frac{k}{n^2}\right]-\frac{k}{n^2}\qquad k=1,\dots,n[/tex]

It is easy to show that

[tex]|g(k,n)|\leq |g(n,n)|\qquad k=1,\dots,n[/tex]

and that

[tex]|ng(n,n)|\rightarrow 0\qquad\textrm{for}\quad n\rightarrow\infty[/tex]

So

[tex]\left|\sum_{k=1}^n\log\left[1+\frac{k}{n^2}\right]-\frac{1}{2}\right|=\left|\sum_{k=1}^n\left(\frac{k}{n^2}+g(k,n)\right)-\frac{1}{2}\right|\leq\frac{n+1}{2n}-\frac{1}{2}+|ng(n,n)|\rightarrow 0\qquad\textrm{for}\quad n\rightarrow\infty[/tex]
 
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Hi Petr,

Wow!... This is a type of solution I was looking for but couldn't get myself. I don't think I could have come up with this idea of subtracting k/n^2, such that g(k,n) can be bounded by g(n,n), but still being o(1/n), so that their total contribution goes to zero. What sort of argument has led you to consider this? I think I tried to apply everything from the second chapter and nothing worked.

Thanks a lot for your help.
 
mikepol said:
Hi Petr,

Wow!... This is a type of solution I was looking for but couldn't get myself. I don't think I could have come up with this idea of subtracting k/n^2, such that g(k,n) can be bounded by g(n,n), but still being o(1/n), so that their total contribution goes to zero. What sort of argument has led you to consider this? I think I tried to apply everything from the second chapter and nothing worked.

Thanks a lot for your help.

Well, the first thing that you think when you see a log is the first order Taylor expansion [tex]\log(1+x)=x+o(x)[/tex], so it's quite natural to try writing (I'm a physician, so I don't care about rigour)

[tex]\sum_{k=1}^{n}\log\left(1+\frac{k}{n^2}\right)=\sum_{k=1}^{n}\left[\frac{k}{n^2}+o\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)\right]=\frac{n+1}{2n}\,+\,n\,o\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)=\frac{n+1}{2n}\,+\,o\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\rightarrow \frac{1}{2}\qquad\textrm{for}\qquad n\rightarrow\infty[/tex]

After you have written this (which is not entirely correct), you have to translate it in "mathematiquees" and you end up more or less with what I wrote in the other post.
 
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