How to show that a locally diffeomorphic mapping from R to R is open?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that a locally diffeomorphic mapping from R to R results in an open interval as its image. Participants also explore the implications of such a mapping being a diffeomorphism from R onto its image f(R).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that since f is a diffeomorphism, it implies a bijective differential morphism between manifolds, raising questions about the topology involved.
  • Another participant questions the necessity of discussing manifolds in the context of R, suggesting that R is a simpler space.
  • There is uncertainty about the interpretation of "the image of R under f is an open interval," with one participant speculating that it might refer to the entirety of R being open.
  • Concerns are raised about how to rigorously define "local diffeomorphism" and its implications for the mapping.
  • One participant proposes that if every point has a neighborhood that is diffeomorphic to an open set in R, then the image of these neighborhoods under f should also be open.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the relevance of manifolds in the discussion, and there is no consensus on the interpretation of the mapping's implications or the definition of local diffeomorphism. The discussion remains unresolved regarding these interpretations.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the definitions and implications of local diffeomorphisms, and there are unresolved questions about the mathematical rigor required for the claims being made.

Relative0
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Let f: R -> R be a local diffeomorphism (diffeomrophism in a neighborhood of each point). Show that the image of R under f is an open interval. Furthermore show that f is a diffeomorphism of R on to f(R).

Ok, here is what I am thinking.. that since we are dealing with a "diffeomorphism" we have a bijective differential morphism between manifolds whose inverse is also bijective (a differentiable homomorphism). Now since we are dealing with diffeomorphisms, we are dealing with manifolds (can I say this?). If we are dealing with manifolds then we have some sort of natural Topology on it (locally) as each point on the manifold can be mapped to Euclidean space of some dimension, and because of such we have an infinitely huge Open ball of a neighborhood?? but in this case an infinite line which is open. Now I am not sure what is meant by showing that "the image of R under f is an open interval" - I am guessing we are just dealing with the whole of R? and since R is infinite it is open and since mapping an open set gives an open set we have that f(R) is open?

Please forgive the lack of equations in the above - but don't know how this would look. perhaps I should try to say something as f(-ε,ε) → ℝ \forall ε > 0.

Now for the second part - to show that f is a diffeomorphism of R on to f(R). Now I don't know how to interpret that.. is f somehow going from R to f(R) which goes to R? I understand that both R and f(R) are on the real line and so it seems like I am just mapping it back to itself and can find an infinite amount of points (of the same cardinality of infinity) that map to one another.

Any thoughts would be very appreciated,

Brian
 
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You're only dealing with \mathbb{R} here. This is a very simple space. There is no need to go talking about manifolds since that is a notion that is much more complex.

I would like to hear from you the exact, rigorous definition of "local diffeomorphism".
 


Relative0 said:
Let f: R -> R be a local diffeomorphism (diffeomrophism in a neighborhood of each point). Show that the image of R under f is an open interval. Furthermore show that f is a diffeomorphism of R on to f(R).

Ok, here is what I am thinking.. that since we are dealing with a "diffeomorphism" we have a bijective differential morphism between manifolds whose inverse is also bijective (a differentiable homomorphism). Now since we are dealing with diffeomorphisms, we are dealing with manifolds (can I say this?). If we are dealing with manifolds then we have some sort of natural Topology on it (locally) as each point on the manifold can be mapped to Euclidean space of some dimension, and because of such we have an infinitely huge Open ball of a neighborhood?? but in this case an infinite line which is open. Now I am not sure what is meant by showing that "the image of R under f is an open interval" - I am guessing we are just dealing with the whole of R? and since R is infinite it is open and since mapping an open set gives an open set we have that f(R) is open?

Please forgive the lack of equations in the above - but don't know how this would look. perhaps I should try to say something as f(-ε,ε) → ℝ \forall ε > 0.

Now for the second part - to show that f is a diffeomorphism of R on to f(R). Now I don't know how to interpret that.. is f somehow going from R to f(R) which goes to R? I understand that both R and f(R) are on the real line and so it seems like I am just mapping it back to itself and can find an infinite amount of points (of the same cardinality of infinity) that map to one another.

Any thoughts would be very appreciated,

Brian

Think about the standard result that tells you when you have a local diffeomorphism, and see the obstacle to having the local diffeomorphism extended to a global diffeomorphism.

Edit: I am assuming the local diffeo means every point has a 'hood diffeo. to R^n.
 
Last edited:
I thought of this some more:
Let R be the copy in thedomain and R' in the codomain

If every x has a 'hood Ux ( we can take an open 'hood) and a local diffeo f_x : Ux-->f(Ux)., then f(Ux)

is open in R' . Then we only need to find a cover of f(R) by balls f(Ux_j), with Ux_j associated to
xj as Ux is associated with Ux.

Each f(Ux_j) is open in R' , and the union of f(Ux_j)'s should cover f(R).
 

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