How to show the diagonal in the extended plane is closed?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the measurability of the set A, defined as the collection of points x in E where the sequence of measurable functions f_n converges in ℝ as n approaches infinity. The proof involves defining a function G: E → ℝ², where G(x) = (liminf f_n(x), limsup f_n(x)), and demonstrating that A can be expressed as G⁻¹(D), with D being the diagonal set in ℝ². The participants explore the closure of the diagonal set {(x,x): x ∈ ℝ̅} in ℝ̅², noting that while the proof for ℝ holds, it does not directly extend to ℝ̅ due to the differences in topology and metric used.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of measurable functions and convergence in real analysis.
  • Familiarity with the concepts of liminf and limsup in sequences.
  • Knowledge of topological spaces, particularly Hausdorff spaces.
  • Basic understanding of compactification and metrics in extended real numbers.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the extended real number system ℝ̅ and its topology.
  • Learn about the product topology and its implications for closed sets in topological spaces.
  • Investigate the concept of compactification and how it affects the closure of sets.
  • Explore the differences between Euclidean metrics and other metrics applicable to ℝ̅².
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Mathematicians, particularly those focused on real analysis, topology, and measure theory, as well as students seeking to deepen their understanding of convergence and measurability in extended real number systems.

psie
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TL;DR
Consider ##\{(x,x):x\in\mathbb R\}##. I've managed to show this set is closed in ##\mathbb R^2## by showing its complement is open. Now using what I've already showed, how can I argue that ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## is closed in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##?
Let ##(f_n)## be a sequence of measurable functions from ##E## into ##\mathbb R##. I'm reading a proof of the fact that the set ##A## of all ##x\in E## for which ##f_n(x)## converges in ##\mathbb R## as ##n\to\infty## is measurable. The proof goes like this (I'm paraphrasing):

Define ##G:E\to\overline{\mathbb R}^2## by ##G(x)=(\liminf f_n(x),\limsup f_n(x))##. Then ##G## is measurable and if ##D=\{(x,x):x\in\mathbb R\}##, then $$A=\{x\in E:-\infty<\liminf f_n(x)=\limsup f_n(x)<\infty\}=G^{-1}(D).$$So the measurability of ##A## follows since ##D## is measurable subset of ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2## (note that ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## is measurable as a closed subset of ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##).

Why is ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## closed in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##? As I said, I can show the diagonal with ##x\in\mathbb R## is closed in ##\mathbb R^2##, but if ##x\in \overline{\mathbb R}## and the space is ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##, how does one proceed?
 
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psie said:
TL;DR Summary: Consider ##\{(x,x):x\in\mathbb R\}##. I've managed to show this set is closed in ##\mathbb R^2## by showing its complement is open. Now using what I've already showed, how can I argue that ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## is closed in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##?

Let ##(f_n)## be a sequence of measurable functions from ##E## into ##\mathbb R##. I'm reading a proof of the fact that the set ##A## of all ##x\in E## for which ##f_n(x)## converges in ##\mathbb R## as ##n\to\infty## is measurable. The proof goes like this (I'm paraphrasing):



Why is ##\{(x,x):x\in\overline{\mathbb R}\}## closed in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##? As I said, I can show the diagonal with ##x\in\mathbb R## is closed in ##\mathbb R^2##, but if ##x\in \overline{\mathbb R}## and the space is ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##, how does one proceed?
Is ##\overline{\mathbb R}## the 1-pt compactification? What metric do you use in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##; the product metric? Edit: Is ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2=\overline {\mathbb R} \times \overline {\mathbb R}##?

Edit 2: Isn't the compactification map an embedding , and, if so, it sends closed sets to closed sets.
 
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Why does you proof for ##\mathbb R## doesn't work for ##\overline{\mathbb R}##? In any case for a topological space ##X##, the diagonal is closed in ##X\times X## (with the product topology) if and only if ##X## is Hausdorff. This is easy to check. And your ##\overline{\mathbb R}##, I suppose is Hausdorff.
 
Good questions.
WWGD said:
Is ##\overline{\mathbb R}## the 1-pt compactification? What metric do you use in ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2##; the product metric? Edit: Is ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2=\overline {\mathbb R} \times \overline {\mathbb R}##?
Yes, ##\overline{\mathbb R}## is ##\{-\infty\}\cup \{\infty\}\cup \mathbb R##. The ad hoc metric is I think ##d(x,y)=|\arctan x-\arctan y|##, so it is homeomorphic to ##[-\pi/2,\pi/2]##. Yes, ##\overline{\mathbb R}^2=\overline {\mathbb R} \times \overline {\mathbb R}##.
WWGD said:
Edit 2: Isn't the compactification map an embedding , and, if so, it sends closed sets to closed sets.
I have only very rudimentary tools at my disposal (metric spaces and the fact that ##\overline {\mathbb R}## is metrizable), so I don't understand your Edit 2.
martinbn said:
Why does you proof for ##\mathbb R## doesn't work for ##\overline{\mathbb R}##?
It doesn't work because the proof uses the Euclidean norm on ##\mathbb R^2##. We can't equip ##\overline {\mathbb R}^2## with the Euclidean norm. :frown:
 
psie said:
It doesn't work because the proof uses the Euclidean norm on ##\mathbb R^2##. We can't equip ##\overline {\mathbb R}^2## with the Euclidean norm. :frown:
You take something off the diagonal ##(x,y)##, this means ##x\not = y##. Then you take to open sets ##U## and ##V## that don't intersect and contain ##x## and ##y## respectively. Then ##U\times V## is an open set containing ##(x,y)## and not meeting the diagonal.
 
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