MHB How to Solve a Terminal Arm Word Problem and Using Latex

  • Thread starter Thread starter mathdrama
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Arm Word problem
mathdrama
Messages
20
Reaction score
0
Would this be an okay way to go about solving the problem? Also, how do I use Latex?
 

Attachments

Mathematics news on Phys.org
You have sketched the arm in the correct quadrant. As for the principal angle, you are correct, however I would write:

$$\theta=\pi-\left(\tan^{-1}\left(-\frac{5}{2}\right)+\pi\right)=\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{5}{2}\right)$$

It appears you are to find the values of the primary trigonometric functions of the angle subtended by the arm and the positive $x$-axis. So, you want to use the angle:

$$\beta=\pi-\theta$$

And recall:

$$\sin(\beta)=\sin(\theta)$$

$$\cos(\beta)=-\cos(\theta)$$

$$\tan(\beta)=-\tan(\theta)$$

As far as using $\LaTeX$, check out our excellent tutorial on getting started:

http://mathhelpboards.com/latex-tips-tutorials-56/mhb-latex-guide-pdf-1142.html
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.

Similar threads

Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
31
Views
1K
Replies
25
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
2K
Back
Top