Graduate How can we approximate the following integral for large D?

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The forum discussion focuses on approximating the integral $$\int_{-\infty }^{\infty }\!{y}^{k}{{\rm e}^{-{\frac {u_{{0}} \, {{\rm e}^{-y}}}{a_{{0}}}}-{\frac {u_{{1}} \, {{\rm e}^{y}}}{a_{{1}}}}}}\,{\rm d}y$$ for large values of D. Participants conclude that while analytical solutions are challenging, numerical methods are viable. The discussion highlights the transformation of the integral into $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty (y-C)^k \mathrm{e}^{-D\cosh y}\,dy$$ and the use of approximations involving the Gamma function for large D, yielding an estimate of $$(-1)^kC^k \mathrm{e}^{-D}\sqrt{2\pi/D}$$.

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TL;DR
How to solve the following integral (in Maple notation): Int(y**k*exp(-u[0]*exp(-y)/a[0]-u[1]*exp(y)/a[1]),y=-infinity..infinity)?
How to solve the following integral (in Maple notation):
Code:
Int(y**k*exp(-u[0]*exp(-y)/a[0]-u[1]*exp(y)/a[1]),y=-infinity..infinity)

with 0<a[0], 0<u[0], 0<a[1], 0<u[1]?
 
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I am looking for a solution of the following integral

$$\int_{-\infty }^{\infty }\!{y}^{k}{{\rm e}^{-{\frac {u_{{0}} \, {{\rm e}^{-y}}}{a_{{0}}}}-{\frac {u_{{1}} \, {{\rm e}^{y}}}{a_{{1}}}}}}\,{\rm d}y$$
with ## 0<a_{0}##, ## 0<a_{1}##, ## 0<c_{0}##, ## 0<c_{1}## and ##k = 1, 2, 3, ..., ##.
 
Now that we are offf the unanswered threads list anyway:

I find it hard to believe an analytical answer exists.

Doodled with ##\ u_0=a_0 \ \ \& \ \ u_1 = a_1\ ## so the integral becomes
$$ \int y^k\; e^{ -\cosh y} $$ and all the odd ##k## yield zero. What remains is interesting enough:

Wolframalpha does the work: for ##k=2## the bounds -4, 4 are already wide enough for 6 digits (0.615622) and of course 0, 5 gives the same result (but more digits !?):

1593771991051.png
1593772055358.png


with ##k=4##:
1593772227000.png

(don't trust all digits, though:
1593772494070.png

and so on
1593772700419.png


But: with larger ##k## things become slippery:
1593772619412.png

1593772547978.png
?:)

So the natural questions are:
  • Where does this come from and where is it going ?
  • Can you make do with a numerical answer ?
  • What precision do you need ?
 
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Just so it doesn't become a stumbling point later, one minor correction: ## \cosh{y}=\frac{e^y+e^{-y}}{2} ##, with a 2 in the denominator.
 
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BvU said:
Now that we are offf the unanswered threads list anyway:

I find it hard to believe an analytical answer exists.

Doodled with ##\ u_0=a_0 \ \ \& \ \ u_1 = a_1\ ## so the integral becomes
$$ \int y^k\; e^{ -\cosh y} $$ and all the odd ##k## yield zero. What remains is interesting enough:

The general case is \int_{-\infty}^\infty (y-C)^k \mathrm{e}^{-\cosh y}\,dy where <br /> \tanh C = \frac{a_0u_1 - a_1u_0}{a_0u_1 + a_1u_0} It probably has to be done numerically.
 
Charles Link said:
Just so it doesn't become a stumbling point later, one minor correction: ## \cosh{y}=\frac{e^y+e^{-y}}{2} ##, with a 2 in the denominator.
So actually I doodled with ##
\ 2u_0=a_0 \ \ \& \ \ 2u_1 = a_1\
##
pasmith said:
The general case is
Can you show how you do that ?
 
BvU said:
So actually I doodled with ##
\ 2u_0=a_0 \ \ \& \ \ 2u_1 = a_1\
##
Can you show how you do that ?

That should be <br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty (y-C)^k \mathrm{e}^{-D\cosh y}\,dy
with C as before and D = 2 \sqrt{\frac{u_0u_1}{a_0a_1}}
 
Still don't see it ...
 
  • #10
BvU said:
Still don't see it ...

Use e^{\pm y} = \cosh y \pm \sinh y and <br /> D \cosh (y + C) = D \cosh C \cosh y + D \sinh C \sinh y to obtain <br /> Ae^y + Be^{-y} = (A + B) \cosh y + (A - B) \sinh y = D \cosh(y + C)
where D \cosh C = A + B),\qquad D\sinh C = A - B. Then substitute y + C = t.

But one could go further and use \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y)\,dy = \int_0^\infty f(y) + f(-y)\,dy to obtain \int_0^\infty ((y - C)^k + (-1)^k (y + C)^k)\mathrm{e}^{-D\cosh y}\,dy and expand the polynomials to obtain <br /> (y - C)^k + (-1)^k (y + C)^k = (-1)^k \sum_{r=0}^k \frac{k!}{(k-r)!r!}C^{k-r} (1 + (-1)^r)y^r from which we see that the terms in odd r vanish and we are left with a linear combination of \int_0^\infty y^r \mathrm{e}^{-D\cosh y}\,dy.

Now for large D we can approximate this as \mathrm{e}^{-D} \int_0^\infty y^r \mathrm{e}^{-\frac12 Dy^2}\,dy and the substitution t = \frac12 D y^2 will turn this into a Gamma function:
\int_0^\infty y^r \mathrm{e}^{-\frac12 D y^2}\,dy = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2D}} \left( \frac 2D\right)^{r/2} <br /> \int_0^\infty t^{\frac{r-1}2}\mathrm{e}^{-t}\,dt =<br /> \frac{1}{\sqrt{2D}} \left( \frac 2D\right)^{r/2}\Gamma\left( \frac{r+1}{2}\right). Thus for large D <br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty (y - C)^k \mathrm{e}^{-D\cosh y}\,dy \approx<br /> \frac{(-1)^k \mathrm{e}^{-D}}{\sqrt{2D}} \sum_{r=0}^k \frac{k!}{(k-r)!r!} C^{k-r}(1 + (-1)^r) \left(\frac 2D\right)^{r/2} \Gamma\left( \frac{r+1}{2}\right). To leading order only the r=0 term is relevant, yielding an estimate of (-1)^kC^k \mathrm{e}^{-D}\sqrt{2\pi/D}.
 
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