How valid is the indivisible interpretation of quantum mechanics?

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DarkloidNeos
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As on the tin
I was reading up on the theory and apparently it's saying stuff that is in direct opposition with current views like how there is no wave function, but that quantum processes occur by randomness? I'm not sure how valid it might be but all I know is that it's a massive departure from the usual stuff.
 
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DarkloidNeos said:
I was reading up on the theory
Where? Please give a specific reference. "The indivisible interpretation" is not any recognized interpretation that I've heard of.
 
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DarkloidNeos said:
Ah, ok. This references several papers by Jacob Barandes, whose work has been discussed in previous PF threads. This one is probably the best place to start:


As far as how "valid" this interpretation is, that's a meaningless question for any QM interpretation. All of them make the same predictions for experimental results, so there's no way to test them against each other by experiment. So it comes down to personal preferences about what kind of story to tell about what is "really happening" in quantum experiments.
 

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