How/when can I take a wave function and its complex conjugate as independent?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the derivation of the Gross-Pitaevskii equation, specifically addressing the independence of the wave function φ and its complex conjugate φ*. The equation presented is 0 = ∫ η* (gNhφ + gN²φ*φ² - Nμφ) dV + ∫ (Nφ*h + gN²(φ²)*φ - Nμφ*) η dV. The conclusion drawn is that for the integrals to equal zero, both expressions must independently equal zero, which necessitates that φ and φ* are treated as independent variables without assumptions regarding their relationship.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of the Gross-Pitaevskii equation
  • Familiarity with Hamiltonian mechanics, specifically for harmonic oscillators
  • Knowledge of complex functions and their properties
  • Proficiency in integral calculus and variational principles
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of the Gross-Pitaevskii equation in detail
  • Explore Hamiltonian mechanics and its applications in quantum systems
  • Learn about the properties of complex conjugates in quantum mechanics
  • Investigate variational methods in quantum field theory
USEFUL FOR

Quantum physicists, researchers in condensed matter physics, and students studying quantum mechanics who are interested in the mathematical foundations of wave functions and their applications in theoretical physics.

SiggyYo
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
For the last step in the derivation of the Gross-Pitaevskii equation, we have the following equation
0=\int \eta^*(gNh\phi+gN^2\phi^*\phi^2-N\mu\phi)\ dV+\int (N\phi^*h+gN^2(\phi^2)^*\phi-N\mu\phi^*)\eta\ dV,
where \eta is an arbitrary function, g,N,\mu are constants, h is the hamiltonian for the harmonic oscillator and \phi is the ground state of the hamiltonian.

Now, the last step involves seeing that this can only be the case if gNh\phi+gN^2\phi^*\phi^2-N\mu\phi and N\phi^*h+gN^2(\phi^2)^*\phi-N\mu\phi^* are both zero. As far as I can tell, I would need an argument that \phi and \phi^* are independent for this to be true.

Can anyone explain why this is the case (or in case I'm wrong, explain what else I need to consider)?

Thanks,
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Write it as ∫ η* A dV + ∫ η B dV = 0, and let η = α + i β where α, β are arbitrary real functions. Then ∫ [α (A + B) + β (-iA + iB)] dV = 0. This can only happen if A + B and A - B are both zero, in other words A and B are both zero. You don't have to assume anything about φ.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
5K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K