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Hyperbola Fermat, Geometric Infinite Sum

  1. Aug 6, 2013 #1
    Hello everybody,

    I'm trying to understand some steps in the evolution of calculus, and in a .pdf found in the internet I read the document: http://www.ugr.es/~mmartins/old_web/Docencia/Old/Docencia-Matematicas/Historia_de_la_matematica/clase_3-web.pdf [Broken], in pags. 14-15. I want to solve the to equations of the two areas (1/ar) and (r/a), but I when I try solving the infinite sum inside the symbols: Ʃ, for example, with the first term for 1/r^k for k=0 equal to 1, I don't reach the same resoult (1/ar). So anybody can help me to understand this, and why lastly the area isn't 1/ar nor r/a, but 1/a as Fermat proved.

    Thank you all.
    Last edited by a moderator: May 6, 2017
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 7, 2013 #2
  4. Aug 7, 2013 #3
    Posible solution

    With the formula to sum the infinite terms of a geometric series, I solve as in the figure attached.

    Attached Files:

    • sum.jpg
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  5. Aug 8, 2013 #4

    Only simplifying:( (r-1)/(a*r^2 ) )*(1-1/r) by multiplying the sum 1/(1-1/r) by r so: r/(r-r/r)=r/(r-1) and then:
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