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## Main Question or Discussion Point

**I can't think of a counterexample to disprove this set theory "theorem"**

Assume F and G are families of sets.

IF [itex]\cup[/itex]F [itex]\bigcap[/itex] [itex]\cup[/itex]G = ∅ (disjoint), THEN F [itex]\bigcap[/itex] G are disjoint as well.