I have a real simple question about the Pythagoras theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Pythagorean theorem and its relationship to trigonometric functions, particularly sine and cosine, in the context of right triangles.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the definitions and relationships between the sides of a right triangle and the angles, questioning the application of the Pythagorean theorem in relation to trigonometric functions.

Discussion Status

Some participants are clarifying the distinction between the Pythagorean theorem and trigonometric functions, while others reflect on their understanding from previous learning experiences. There is an ongoing exploration of the relationships between angles and sides in right triangles.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of confusion stemming from past educational experiences, indicating a potential gap in understanding the foundational concepts related to the theorem and trigonometry.

rgtr
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Homework Statement
There are 2 angles c and d. If I pick angle d instead of angle c. Does opposite become adjacent and adjacent becomes opposite?
https://www.grc.nasa.gov/www/BGH/sincos.html
Relevant Equations
## tan(d) = \frac o a ##
Here is the link.
https://www.grc.nasa.gov/www/BGH/sincos.html

Sorry just a little rusty on Pythagoras theorem.

I mean the formula still holds but in order to find the opposite and the adjacent the opposite becomes the adjacent and vice versa .
 
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Yes.
 
Thanks.
 
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@rgtr, your question has nothing to do the theorem of Pythagoras, which involves the two sides of a right triangle and the hypotenuse. It doesn't distinguish between the two sides.
What you're asking about is more relevant to how the sine and cosine functions are defined for a right triangle.
 
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Sorry I was in school a few years ago. I just remember learning them all together.
 
Last edited:
if the angles c and d are the two angles (besides the right angle) of a right triangle then yes it is as you say.

A generalization of your observation is that for two angles ##x## and ##y## such that ##x=\frac{\pi}{2}-y## it holds that $$\tan x=\frac{1}{\tan y}$$
 
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