I have a real simple question about the Pythagoras theorem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Pythagorean theorem and its relationship with trigonometric functions, specifically sine and cosine. Participants clarify that the Pythagorean theorem applies to the sides of a right triangle, while the sine and cosine functions relate to the angles of the triangle. A key observation noted is that for angles x and y, where x equals π/2 minus y, the relationship tan x equals 1/tan y holds true. This highlights the interconnectedness of trigonometric identities and the Pythagorean theorem.

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  • Understanding of the Pythagorean theorem
  • Basic knowledge of trigonometric functions (sine, cosine, tangent)
  • Familiarity with right triangle properties
  • Concept of angle relationships in trigonometry
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Students of mathematics, educators teaching geometry and trigonometry, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of the relationship between the Pythagorean theorem and trigonometric functions.

rgtr
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Homework Statement
There are 2 angles c and d. If I pick angle d instead of angle c. Does opposite become adjacent and adjacent becomes opposite?
https://www.grc.nasa.gov/www/BGH/sincos.html
Relevant Equations
## tan(d) = \frac o a ##
Here is the link.
https://www.grc.nasa.gov/www/BGH/sincos.html

Sorry just a little rusty on Pythagoras theorem.

I mean the formula still holds but in order to find the opposite and the adjacent the opposite becomes the adjacent and vice versa .
 
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Yes.
 
Thanks.
 
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@rgtr, your question has nothing to do the theorem of Pythagoras, which involves the two sides of a right triangle and the hypotenuse. It doesn't distinguish between the two sides.
What you're asking about is more relevant to how the sine and cosine functions are defined for a right triangle.
 
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Sorry I was in school a few years ago. I just remember learning them all together.
 
Last edited:
if the angles c and d are the two angles (besides the right angle) of a right triangle then yes it is as you say.

A generalization of your observation is that for two angles ##x## and ##y## such that ##x=\frac{\pi}{2}-y## it holds that $$\tan x=\frac{1}{\tan y}$$
 
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