If nerve conduction is bidirectional, how does it work?

[sameeralord]

When stimulated in the middle of axon, nerve conduction is bidirectioal. Now I know the andromic conduction stops at the first synapse. Is the reason for this, that there are no neurotransmitters in the body of a neuron, and more importantly no calcium channels there to activte them. Thanks

 

[Lievo]

When stimulated in the middle of axon, nerve conduction is bidirectioal. Now I know the andromic conduction stops at the first synapse. Is the reason for this, that there are no neurotransmitters in the body of a neuron, and more importantly no calcium channels there to activte them. Thanks

I assume you mean antidromic. Yeah. But even if there was that would not be supposed to work as there is no channel-receptors on the antidromic axon. However, the antidromic conduction could pass through http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electrical_synapse" in case some were on the neurons you stimulated.

 

[mtc1973]

Again - it is the self limiting nature of the channel opening. Once the channels activate transiently then they then automatically close - this confers a natural direction to the spread of depolarization, i.e. a potential can only travel to the next unactivated channel - but not back in the direction it came because those channels are still closed in their refractory period.

 

[Lievo]

It seems we don't understood the question the same way. Sameeralord, are you asking for why an orthodromic AP can't became antidromic or are you asking for why an antidromic APs stop when back? The former -see mtc1973 answer, the latter -see mine.