Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Imaginary Zeros of Zeta Function

  1. Dec 1, 2008 #1
    I was doing some work with the zeta function and have a question.

    I am aware that the Riemann Hypothesis claims that all of the critical zeros of the analytically continued zeta function have a real part Re(z)=1/2.

    My question is, does the concept apply only to the complex zeros, or the imaginary and real parts separately.

    Basically, is it possible to have:

    Im(zeta(z))=0

    Without having:

    Re(zeta(z))=0


    Or does a zero of one part automatically illustrate the existence of a zero for the other?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 1, 2008 #2
    A zero x of a function f is when f(x)=0, (=0+0i) and it is no different with the zeta function.
     
  4. Dec 1, 2008 #3
    No. For example, along the real line the imaginary part of the zeta function is zero, but the real part is certainly not always zero.

    Look at this page on mathworld: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RiemannZetaFunctionZeros.html
    There's a graph of the curves where the real parts are zero and where the imaginary parts are zero. Where these curves intersect, that is, where the real and imaginary parts are zero, the function has a zero.
     
  5. Dec 8, 2008 #4
    there is no exclusion for Im (z) in the hypothesis .Read again please.
     
  6. Dec 14, 2008 #5
    Hi!
    The Riemann Hypothesis clames that if RZF(z)=0 and z is not a trivial zero, then Re(z)=1/2. That is all. The real part of z needs to be equal to 1/2 (there is NOT restriccion about the imaginary part of z). And 0=0+0 I=ZERO.

    RFZ= Riemann Zeta function.
     
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook

Have something to add?



Similar Discussions: Imaginary Zeros of Zeta Function
Loading...