Independant RV's and the Borel-Cantelli Lemmas

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion centers around the application of the Borel-Cantelli lemmas in the context of independent random variables and the strong law of large numbers. Participants are exploring how these concepts interrelate, particularly in relation to convergence and probability measures.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to understand the implications of the S term in the problem and its connection to the strong law of large numbers. There is a focus on showing convergence in probability and the conditions under which the Borel-Cantelli lemmas apply.

Discussion Status

Some participants are providing insights into the necessary conditions for applying the Borel-Cantelli lemmas, while others are questioning their understanding of the problem setup and the implications of their findings. There is an ongoing exploration of how to demonstrate the required probabilities and the relationships between the random variables involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework rules, which may limit the amount of direct assistance they can provide to one another. There is also a mention of specific probability distributions and convergence criteria that are being discussed.

Firepanda
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wvcuvp.png


The first part I can do no problem!

The second part... well I've really no idea what to do with that S term, I assume it has something to do with the strong law of large numbers? (w is an element in the set of outcomes)

Borel-Cantelli Lemmas

Law of Large Numbers

Does anyone know where to start?

Thanks

edit:

I have an exmple of strong convergence showing that

if P(w : lim Xn(w) = X(w) )

then this is identically equal to

P(Xn -> X) = 1 , almost surely

So I guess I just have to show that P(Xn -> X) = 1,

So show: P(Sn(w)/n -> -1) = 1?

Probably going the wrong way around it.. not sure how Borel Cantelli links to it.
 
Last edited:
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Firepanda said:
wvcuvp.png


The first part I can do no problem!

The second part... well I've really no idea what to do with that S term, I assume it has something to do with the strong law of large numbers? (w is an element in the set of outcomes)

Borel-Cantelli Lemmas

Law of Large Numbers

Does anyone know where to start?

Thanks

edit:

I have an exmple of strong convergence showing that

if P(w : lim Xn(w) = X(w) )

then this is identically equal to

P(Xn -> X) = 1 , almost surely

So I guess I just have to show that P(Xn -> X) = 1,

So show: P(Sn(w)/n -> -1) = 1?

Probably going the wrong way around it.. not sure how Borel Cantelli links to it.

It is probably simpler to re-write the problem a bit: let [itex]X_n = -1 + Y_n,[/itex] where [tex]\Pr\{Y_n = 0 \} = 1 - \frac{1}{n^2}, \mbox{ and } \Pr \{Y_n = n^2 \} = \frac{1}{n^2}.[/tex] Essentially, you want to show that [itex]\sum_{k=1}^n Y_k / n \rightarrow 0[/itex] w.p. 1. If [itex]A = \{ Y_n > 0 \mbox{ infinitely often } \},[/itex] can you show that Pr{A} = 0?

RGV
 
Hi RGV, you always answer my questions it seems! :)

So I need to show given the event En = Yn>0

that the sum from n=1 to inf of P(En) is finite (Borel Cantelli)

So this is the sum of n=1 to inf of 1/n2?

Which is pi^2/6, and so the probability is 0!

Correct?
 
Also any idea on the second part of this question?

v5ltep.png


It looks like the same structure..

Thanks!
 
bump..!
 

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