Index and bound shift in converting a sum into integral

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equivalency between a summation and an integral, specifically the expression $$\sum_{i=2}^{k}(h_i/f_{i-1})=\int_{1}^{k}(h(i)/f(i))di$$. Participants clarify that without additional context, the expression lacks meaning, as the index in the sum cannot be directly translated into the integral. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the nature of functions and sequences, emphasizing that inequalities rather than equalities typically govern the relationship between sums and integrals, particularly when dealing with monotonically decreasing functions.

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Alex_F
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Considering the below equality (or equivalency), could someone please explain how the bounds and indices are shifted?
$$\sum_{i=2}^{k}(h_i/f_{i-1})=\int_{1}^{k}(h(i)/f(i))di$$
 
Last edited:
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As it stands the expression is meaningless. You can approximate an integral with a sum, but the index in the sum and the number of elements in the sum cannot be carried over in the way you present it.
 
Svein said:
As it stands the expression is meaningless. You can approximate an integral with a sum, but the index in the sum and the number of elements in the sum cannot be carried over in the way you present it.
Actually this is not written by me. I have seen this in a book and also couple of articles. So I suppose that is correct.
 
I agree with @Svein -- without some additional context, it's difficult to understand what the parts of the equation is supposed to represent. For example, is ##f## a function of some real variable, or is it a sequence? (However, a sequence is generally considered to be a function defined on some set of integers.)
 
Generally what it holds, given that the function ##g(i)## is monotonically decreasing is that $$\int_N^{M+1}g(i)di\leq\sum_{i=N}^Mg(i)\leq g(N)+\int_N^{M}g(i)di$$

So as you can see we don't have equality but a pair of inequalities that "sandwiches" the sum, we don't have index shifting (##i## remains ##i## everywhere), but the bounds are kind of shifted.
For more details check
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_test_for_convergence#Proof

if g is increasing then the inequalities are reversed that is it holds:
$$\int_N^{M+1}g(i)di\geq\sum_{i=N}^Mg(i)\geq g(N)+\int_N^{M}g(i)di$$
 
Last edited:
Delta2 said:
(i remains i everywhere),
In the integrals, i must be a real or complex number (if you mean a Stieltjes integral your expression must be a bit more complicated). In the summation, i is an integer.
 
Svein said:
In the integrals, i must be a real or complex number (if you mean a Stieltjes integral your expression must be a bit more complicated). In the summation, i is an integer.
No those are Riemann integrals. I guess the symbol i is a bit overloaded there.
 

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