Infinite Sequences of Sines

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The forum discussion revolves around proving the existence of a strictly increasing sequence of integers \( m_1 < m_2 < m_3 < \cdots \) such that for all positive integers \( \ell \), the sequence \( \sin(\ell m_1), \sin(\ell m_2), \sin(\ell m_3), \ldots \) converges. The integers proposed include \( m_1 = 3, m_2 = 31, m_3 = 314 \), and a general form \( m_n = [\pi \cdot 10^{n-1}] \). The discussion highlights the importance of rational approximations of \( \pi \) and the periodicity of the sine function in establishing convergence.

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  • Understanding of sine function periodicity
  • Familiarity with Diophantine approximation
  • Knowledge of Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem
  • Basic concepts of sequences and limits in calculus
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  • #31
PeroK said:
##k, n## depend on ##\epsilon##. If the same ##k,n## suffice for all ##\epsilon##, then we must have ##k\pi = n##, which is impossible.
Perhaps I should flesh out my argument, since I wasn't assuming that k and n were fixed. Your lemma states, in effect, that given any ##\epsilon > 0##, there exist integers k and n (depending on ##\epsilon##) such that ##|k\pi - n| < \epsilon##. I argue that, if this is true, then there exist sequences of integers ##k_1, k_2, k_3, \cdots## and ##n_1, n_2, n_3, \cdots##, such that

##|k_1\pi - n_1|= 0. 0a_1 a_2 a_3 \dots##
##|k_2\pi - n_2| = 0. 00b_1 b_2 b_3 \dots##
##|k_3\pi - n_3| = 0. 000c_1 c_2 c_3 \dots##
{writing ##k_1## and ##n_1## corresponding to ##\epsilon_1## (as defined below) and so on.

As in my prior post, we may assume that ##\epsilon < 1##. Then, by assumption, there exist integers ##k_{\epsilon}## and ##n_{\epsilon}## such that ##|k_{\epsilon}\pi - n_{\epsilon}| < \epsilon < 1##. Since the difference between ##k_{\epsilon}\pi## and ##n_{\epsilon}## is less than one, we must have that ##n_{\epsilon}## is the integer nearest to ##k_{\epsilon}\pi## and so ##|k_{\epsilon}\pi - n_{\epsilon}|## is the decimal part of ##k_{\epsilon}\pi##. Setting ##\epsilon_1 = 0.1, \epsilon_2 = 0.01##, and so on, we get the sequence shown above. It is unknown whether such a sequence, corresponding to arbitrarily many zeros at the beginning of ##k_i\pi##'s decimal expansion, exists. (I originally included the part about base k to simplify the argument, but it's not needed.)
 
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  • #32
I don't follow that argument. I'm pretty sure that lemma must hold for all irrationals.
 
  • #33
Here's an outline proof. Let ##x## be a positive irrational and consider the infimum of the set ##S = \{k' = kx -[kx]: k \in \mathbb N \}##. By choosing ##\epsilon < inf S## we can find ##k_1, k_2## such that ##k'_1 - inf S = \epsilon## and ##infS < k'_2## and ##k'_1 - k'_2 < \epsilon##.

Then each ##k_2 -k_1## steps we reduce ##k'## by a fixed quantity less than ##inf S##, which leads to some ##k' < inf S##. Unless, of course, ##\inf S = 0##.
 
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  • #34
PeroK said:
Here's an outline proof. Let ##x## be a positive irrational and consider the infimum of the set ##S = \{k' = kx -[kx]: k \in \mathbb N \}##. By choosing ##\epsilon < inf S## we can find ##k_1, k_2## such that ##k'_1 - inf S = \epsilon## and ##infS < k'_2## and ##k'_1 - k'_2 < \epsilon##.

Then each ##k_2 -k_1## steps we reduce ##k'## by a fixed quantity less than ##inf S##, which leads to some ##k' < inf S##. Unless, of course, ##\inf S = 0##.
What if ##x = 0.101001000100001000001 \cdots##? (with the number of zeros between ones increasing by one each time). That number is clearly irrational, but the set S contains numbers of the form ##0.10 \cdots, 0.0010 \cdots, 0.00010 \cdots## (letting k equal a suitable power of 10) and so on. Therefore, Inf(S) = 0. There are plenty of other irrationals such that Inf(S) = 0. You recognize that's an issue, but how do you handle it? Can you even prove that ##S = \{k' = k\pi -[k\pi]: k \in \mathbb N \}## doesn't have Inf (S)= 0?
 
  • #35
Here's a full proof:

Let ##x## be a positive irrational and consider the infimum of the set ##S = \{k' = kx -[kx]: k \in \mathbb N \}##. We need to show that ##s = \inf(S) = 0##.

Assume ##0 < s < 1##. We can find ##k_1## such that$$k_1x = n_1 + s + \epsilon$$where ##\epsilon < s## and ##s + \epsilon < 1##.

Now, we can find ##k_2 > k_1## such that $$k_2x = n_2 + s + \delta$$where ##\delta < \frac \epsilon 2##. Note to ensure that ##k_2 > k_1##, we look for ##\delta < \min\{\frac \epsilon 2, 1'-s, 2'-s \dots k'_1-s\}##.

Moreover:$$(2k_2 - k_1)x = 2n_2 + 2s + 2\delta - n_1 - s - \epsilon = 2n_2 - n_1 + s + 2\delta - \epsilon$$This is a contradiction, as$$0 < s + 2\delta - \epsilon < s$$and hence we have a member of ##S## less than the infimum. The conclusion is that ##\inf(S) = 0##, as required.
 
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  • #36
Petek said:
Therefore, Inf(S) = 0. There are plenty of other irrationals such that Inf(S) = 0. You recognize that's an issue, but how do you handle it? Can you even prove that ##S = \{k' = k\pi -[k\pi]: k \in \mathbb N \}## doesn't have Inf (S)= 0?
The whole point is that ##\inf(S) = 0## for all irrationals; as I've just proved. And that proves the original lemma.
 
  • #37
PeroK said:
First, we need to prove that for any irrational number ##x## and ##\epsilon > 0##, there exist integers ##k, n## such that ##|kx - n| < \epsilon##. I thought this would follow from the density of the rationals, but I haven't found a proof yet.

Let's assume that holds. And, in particular, applies to ##\pi##.
...

But, we still need a proof of the initial lemma.
I don't understand why you needed to prove it for any ##x## instead of just ##\pi## which is what you are interested in using. If you can show you can construct the sequence around ##\pi## then its existence is proved isn't it?
 
  • #38
bob012345 said:
I don't understand why you needed to prove it for any ##x## instead of just ##\pi## which is what you are interested in using. If you can show you can construct the sequence around ##\pi## then its existence is proved isn't it?
It amounted to the same thing. The irrationality of ##\pi## was the key property, so it seemed logical to generalise.
 
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  • #39
I realize the proof does not require it but I'm still interested in seeing an actual algorithm or method to generate the ##m_i's##. I tried but ran into a mental block.
 
  • #40
Alternative method:

Define f: \mathbb{N} \to S^1 : m \mapsto (\cos m , \sin m). Then by sequential compactness of S^1, (f(m))_{m\in\mathbb{N}} has a convergent subsequence (f(m_n))_{n\in\mathbb{N}}. Then for positive integer \ell let <br /> P_\ell: S^1 \to S^1 : (\cos \theta, \sin \theta) \mapsto (\cos \ell \theta, \sin \ell \theta) which is a polynomial of degree \ell and so continuous. Hence (P_{\ell}\circ f)(m_n) = (\cos(\ell m_n), \sin(\ell m_n)) converges.

bob012345 said:
I realize the proof does not require it but I'm still interested in seeing an actual algorithm or method to generate the ##m_i's##. I tried but ran into a mental block.

EDIT: I got confused with a different thread concerning convergence of \sin^2(a_n), which has period \pi; however the principle is clear.

Python:
import numpy as np
a = np.zeros(6,dtype=int)
a[0] = 1
xprev = a[0] % np.pi
# Constructing a sequence such that x_{m_n} tends to a multiple of pi:
for n in range(1,6):
    m = a[n-1] + 1
    while True:
        x = m % np.pi
        if min(x, np.pi-x) < min(xprev, np.pi-xprev):
            a[n] = m
            xprev = x
            break
        m = m + 1

        
a
array([     1,      3,     22,    333,    355, 103993])
np.sin(a)**2
array([7.08073418e-01, 1.99148567e-02, 7.83456762e-05, 7.78129716e-05,
       9.08682039e-10, 3.65931487e-10])
 
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  • #41
PeroK said:
Here's a full proof:

Let ##x## be a positive irrational and consider the infimum of the set ##S = \{k' = kx -[kx]: k \in \mathbb N \}##. We need to show that ##s = \inf(S) = 0##.

Assume ##0 < s < 1##. We can find ##k_1## such that$$k_1x = n_1 + s + \epsilon$$where ##\epsilon < s## and ##s + \epsilon < 1##.

Now, we can find ##k_2 > k_1## such that $$k_2x = n_2 + s + \delta$$where ##\delta < \frac \epsilon 2##. Note to ensure that ##k_2 > k_1##, we look for ##\delta < \min\{\frac \epsilon 2, 1'-s, 2'-s \dots k'_1-s\}##.

Moreover:$$(2k_2 - k_1)x = 2n_2 + 2s + 2\delta - n_1 - s - \epsilon = 2n_2 - n_1 + s + 2\delta - \epsilon$$This is a contradiction, as$$0 < s + 2\delta - \epsilon < s$$and hence we have a member of ##S## less than the infimum. The conclusion is that ##\inf(S) = 0##, as required.
There is a little more work to cover the case where ##s \in S##. First, ##s \ne x-[x]##, since ##x- [x], 2x -[2x], 3x-[3x] \dots## cannot increase indefinitely and when it overflows ##1## and decreases we must have ##nx - {nx} < x - [x]##, because ##x- [x]## is effectively the increment each time.

And, if ##s = nx - [nx]##, then we take ##nx## as our starting irrational with the same ##s##, which is impossible, by the above argument.
 
  • #42
Actually, the above tidy-up gives an idea for a simpler elementary proof. In outline, we start with ##x - [x]##, then find a sequence ##n_k## such that ##n_{k+1}x - [n_{k+1}x] < n_kx - [n_kx]##. This sequence is bounded below, hence converges and hence the difference in terms in the sequence must tend to zero. That gives the required sequence.
 
  • #43
bob012345 said:
I assume you mean radians? If it were interpreted as degrees it would have the trivial solution ##sin(l m_i ) = 0## for all ##l, m_i =360 i## with ##i= 1 ,2,3...∞## converging to zero.
OP, pls answer this. I was all excited that I found an easy solution.
 
  • #44
paige turner said:
OP, pls answer this. I was all excited that I found an easy solution.
Hi @paige turner, please read post #12.
 
  • #45
I didn't expect that this POTW would invite so much attention and discussion. Thanks to all for participating!

Since the sequence ##\{\sin n\}_{n = 1}^\infty## is bounded, by the Bolzano Weierstrass theorem it has a convergent subsequence ##\{\sin n_1(k)\}_{k = 1}^\infty##. The sequence ##\{\sin 2n_1(k)\}_{k = 1}^\infty## is bounded, so it admits a further subsequence ##\{\sin 2n_2(k)\}_{k = 1}^\infty##. Continuing the process, we extract a sequence of sequences ##\{n_1(k)\}_{k = 1}^\infty, \{n_2(k)\}_{k = 1}^\infty,\ldots## such that for every positive integer ##\ell## the sequence ##\{\sin \ell n_\ell(k)\}_{k = 1}^\infty## converges. Define ##m_k = n_k(k)## for ##k = 1, 2, 3,\ldots##. Then ##m_1 < m_2 < \cdots##, and given a positive integer ##\ell##, the sequence ##\{\sin \ell m_k\}_{k = 1}^\infty## is eventually a subsequence of the convergent sequence ##\{\sin \ell n_\ell(k)\}_{k = 1}^\infty##, so it converges.
 

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