Infinite square well, momentum space

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the momentum-space wave function \Phi_n(p,t) for the nth stationary state of an infinite square well. The problem involves understanding the relationship between position and momentum representations in quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive \Phi_n(p,t) using integration over the wave function \Psi_n(x,t) and expresses concern about the correctness of their approach. Some participants question the limits of integration, noting that the wave function is non-zero only within the boundaries of the well. Others inquire about the implications of integrating over the correct limits and express confusion over the resulting expressions.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, clarifying the integration limits and discussing the implications of the wave function's boundaries. There is acknowledgment of corrections made to previous statements, and some participants are exploring alternative approaches to the integration process.

Contextual Notes

There is a focus on the constraints of the infinite square well, specifically that the wave function is strictly zero outside the defined boundaries. This leads to discussions about the appropriate limits for integration and the potential use of delta functions in the calculations.

NeoDevin
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Problem:
Find the momentum-space wave function [itex]\Phi_n(p,t)[/itex] for the [itex]n[/itex]th stationary state of the infinite square well.

Equations:

[tex]\Psi_n(x,t) = \psi_n(x) \phi_n(t)[/tex]

[tex]\psi_n(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin(\frac{n\pi}{a}x)[/tex]

[tex]\phi_n(t) = e^{-iE_n t/\hbar}[/tex]

[tex]\Phi_n(p,t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} e^{-ipx/\hbar} \Psi_n(x,t) dx[/tex]

Attempt:

[tex]\Phi_n(p,t) = \frac{\phi_n(t)}{\sqrt{a\pi\hbar}} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} e^{-ipx/\hbar} \sin(\frac{n\pi}{a}x) dx[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{\phi_n(t)}{\sqrt{a\pi\hbar}} \frac{1}{2i} \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\Bigg(e^{i(\frac{n\pi}{a} - \frac{p}{\hbar})x} - e^{i(\frac{-p}{\hbar} - \frac{n\pi}{a})x}\Bigg) dx[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{\phi_n(t)}{\sqrt{a\pi\hbar}} \frac{1}{2i} 2\pi \Bigg(\delta(\frac{n\pi}{a} - \frac{p}{\hbar}) - \delta(\frac{p}{\hbar} + \frac{n\pi}{a})\Bigg)[/tex]

This doesn't seem right to me. Do I have this right, or am I missing something somewhere?
 
Last edited:
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OOOOPS. Except you DON'T want to integrate x from -infinity to +infinity. The wavefunction only lives in the box.
 
Oh, right... thanks
 
I corrected my previous flip answer.
 
I know, I saw. Thanks.
 
Dick said:
OOOOPS. Except you DON'T want to integrate x from -infinity to +infinity. The wavefunction only lives in the box.

He SHOULD integrate from - to + infinity, it's just that outside the box the wavefunction is strictly 0...
 
What happens when you only integrate from 0 to a? When I try I get a seemingly uselessly messy answer, is there some trick to use delta functions or something I am missing?
 
Hi, See Schbert

http://www.ecse.rpi.edu/~schubert/Course-ECSE-6968%20Quantum%20mechanics/Ch03%20Position&momentum%20space.pdf

Regards.
 
Last edited by a moderator:

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