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Infinite Well Problem - Time Independent Schrodinger's Equation

  1. Sep 18, 2011 #1


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    I'm currently taking a Semiconductor class and we're talking about Schrodinger's Wave Equation, specifically the 1 dimensional time independent form.

    We were looking at the infinite potential well model:


    And we divided the graph into 3 different regions: first being the left (or negative) V(x)= -inf, the second being V(x)=0, and the third being V(x)= inf.

    We solved the second region first using the equation:

    d2[itex]\Psi[/itex](x)/dx2 + [itex]\frac{2m}{\hbar}[/itex]*(E-V(x))*[itex]\Psi[/itex](x) = 0

    Well my professor said this math should be something we could do easily, so pardon me if I seem a bit ignorant, but I really can't recall an effective way to tackle this problem. He gave us the solution, which is:

    [itex]\Psi[/itex](x) = A1cos(kx) + A2sin(kx)

    I should have included all the information needed, but if not please ask!

  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 18, 2011 #2


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    Staff: Mentor

  4. Sep 19, 2011 #3


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