I'm currently taking a Semiconductor class and we're talking about Schrodinger's Wave Equation, specifically the 1 dimensional time independent form.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

We were looking at the infinite potential well model:

And we divided the graph into 3 different regions: first being the left (or negative) V(x)= -inf, the second being V(x)=0, and the third being V(x)= inf.

We solved the second region first using the equation:

d^{2}[itex]\Psi[/itex](x)/dx^{2}+ [itex]\frac{2m}{\hbar}[/itex]*(E-V(x))*[itex]\Psi[/itex](x) = 0

Well my professor said this math should be something we could do easily, so pardon me if I seem a bit ignorant, but I really can't recall an effective way to tackle this problem. He gave us the solution, which is:

[itex]\Psi[/itex](x) = A_{1}cos(kx) + A_{2}sin(kx)

I should have included all the information needed, but if not please ask!

Thanks!

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# Infinite Well Problem - Time Independent Schrodinger's Equation

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