Infinite Well Problem - Time Independent Schrodinger's Equation

  • Thread starter CB4
  • Start date
  • #1
CB4
10
0
I'm currently taking a Semiconductor class and we're talking about Schrodinger's Wave Equation, specifically the 1 dimensional time independent form.

We were looking at the infinite potential well model:

220px-Infinite_potential_well.svg.png


And we divided the graph into 3 different regions: first being the left (or negative) V(x)= -inf, the second being V(x)=0, and the third being V(x)= inf.

We solved the second region first using the equation:

d2[itex]\Psi[/itex](x)/dx2 + [itex]\frac{2m}{\hbar}[/itex]*(E-V(x))*[itex]\Psi[/itex](x) = 0

Well my professor said this math should be something we could do easily, so pardon me if I seem a bit ignorant, but I really can't recall an effective way to tackle this problem. He gave us the solution, which is:

[itex]\Psi[/itex](x) = A1cos(kx) + A2sin(kx)

I should have included all the information needed, but if not please ask!

Thanks!
 

Answers and Replies

  • #3
qsa
353
1

Related Threads on Infinite Well Problem - Time Independent Schrodinger's Equation

Replies
5
Views
6K
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
5
Views
4K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • Last Post
Replies
7
Views
4K
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
10
Views
911
Top