Cutter Ketch said:
If you had written your work equation with integrals over the path (given that you would still be ignoring the work done on the air and correcting the other things I) then I think you could write a work relation like that. Unfortunately it wouldn’t be terribly useful, because you don’t have any prior knowledge of the pressures as a function of time or distance moved.
@Cutter Ketch I have been thinking this through and I am curious about the validity of my deduced integral to calculate the work done on the small piston.
The pressure force ##F_P## is the difference between the two pressures halves in the container times the surface of the small piston. These two pressures are inversely proportional to the volume halves they're in. The volume decrease/increase can be expressed as the distance ##D## by which the small piston moves down multiplied by its surface ##\pi r_1^2##. Thus ##F_P## is equal to $$F_P=\pi r^2_1 \cdot \bigg(P\cdot \frac{V}{V-D \cdot \pi r_1^2} - P \cdot \frac{V}{V+D \cdot \pi r_1^2}\bigg)$$
Here ##P## and ##V## are the initial pressure halves and volume halves of the container before the small piston gets pushed down, each being identical at the start.
So one can substract the pressure force at small increments of distance ##D## from the force ##F_1## until ##F_1 = 0##.
This would make me deduce the following integral for the work ##E## done on the small piston:
$$E=\int_0^{D_1} F_1 - \pi r^2_1 \cdot \bigg(P\cdot \frac{V}{V-D \cdot \pi r_1^2} - P \cdot \frac{V}{V+D \cdot \pi r_1^2}\bigg) \cdot dD$$
The upper limit ##D_1## being the total distance moved by the small piston which needs to be solved first by setting ##F_P = F_1##.
Does this integral make sense?
jbriggs444 said:
If we give the pistons some mass but leave friction out of it, we will end up with simple harmonic motion. The pistons will both oscillate about some new equilibrium point.
I'm sorry to bother you again with this, but in the absence of friction, is the harmonic motion purely caused by inertia of the massive pistons?
jbriggs444 said:
es. At least in the case of a friction that is proportional to velocity (e.g. viscosity in the fluid).
I might be getting a bit chemical here but in what energy forms does viscosity transform the mechanical energy into? If it's heat, then doesn't this increase the pressure of the fluid particles back again anyway?