MHB Injective linear mapping - image

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on proving that a linear mapping f: V → W is injective if and only if the image of every linearly independent subset S of V remains linearly independent in W. The user confirms that if f is injective, then the kernel of f is zero, leading to the conclusion that the dimension of the image equals the dimension of V. They question whether this implies that the image of f is equal to W. To proceed, they suggest using the linear independence of S to derive a contradiction if the image f(S) is assumed to be dependent. The conversation emphasizes the relationship between injectivity and the preservation of linear independence through the mapping.
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
4,984
Reaction score
7
Hey! :o

Let $F$ be a field and $V,W$ finite-dimensional vector spaces over $F$.

Let $f:V\rightarrow W$ a $F$-linear mapping.

We have to show that $f$ is injective if and only if for each linearly independent subset $S$ of $V$ the Image $f(S)$ is linearly independent in $W$. I have done the following:

If $f$ is injective we have that $kern (f)=\{0\}$, right?

Since $\dim (kern(f))+\dim (im(f))=\dim V$ and since $\dim (kern (f))=0$ we get that $\dim (im(f))=\dim V$.

It holds that $\dim im(f) = \dim W$, right?

So, we get that $im (f) = W$, or not? (Wondering)

Does this help us to get the desired result? (Wondering)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Since $S$ is linearly independent we get that $\sum_{i=1}^nc_is_i=0 \Rightarrow c_i=0, \forall i$, where $s_i\in S$.

Then since $f$ is linear we have that $f\left (\sum_{i=1}^nc_is_i\right )=f(0) \Rightarrow \sum_{i=1}^nc_if(s_i)=0$.

How do we continue from here? How do we use the fact that $f$ is injective? (Wondering)
 
mathmari said:
Since $S$ is linearly independent we get that $\sum_{i=1}^nc_is_i=0 \Rightarrow c_i=0, \forall i$, where $s_i\in S$.

Then since $f$ is linear we have that $f\left (\sum_{i=1}^nc_is_i\right )=f(0) \Rightarrow \sum_{i=1}^nc_if(s_i)=0$.

How do we continue from here? How do we use the fact that $f$ is injective? (Wondering)

Take the image of a linearly independent set and assume it is not independent you should be able to get a contradiction using the fact you gave that injective means the kernal is zero.
 
Thread 'How to define a vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 24 ·
Replies
24
Views
4K
  • · Replies 41 ·
2
Replies
41
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K