I'm interested in constructive QFT and I'd like to pose a question about construction of the one-particle Hilbert space of states for bosons.

For fermions satisfying the Dirac equation, the inner product is
[tex]
\langle \psi, \phi \rangle = \int d^3 x \; \psi^\dagger(x) \phi(x).
[/tex]
The inner product is a constant of motion (and Lorentz invariant) because the integrand is the 0th component of a conserved current. The inner product is positive definite, and defines the Hilbert space L^2.

Is there a similar inner product for bosons satisfying the Klein-Gordan equation?

I previously thought that boson state spaces required an indefinite inner product (i.e., existence of negative-norm states), which is a problem because the triangle inequality is broken. This basically ruins any chance of applying Hilbert space theory.

Recently I found a paper [1] which refers to an answer, but doesn't give it explicitly. To quote from the introduction:

Can somebody help me out here?

Thanks very much,

Dave

[1] Shale, Trans. Am. Math. Soc. 103 (1962) 149, Linear Symmetries of Free Boson Fields.

Could you be a little more direct in your answer? Suppose H is the space of solutions to the K-G equation, and [itex]\psi, \phi \in H [/itex]. What is the inner product [itex] \langle \psi, \phi \rangle [/itex]? Is it a constant of motion and Lorentz invariant? Is it positive definite?

I might as well ask it here instead of starting a new thread: Is there a book that explains these things? The sort of "things" I'm talking about is e.g. how to define the Hilbert space of one-particle states from the solutions of the field equation, and how to define operators on that space. Geroch does it pretty well, but there are things in his notes that I just don't get, so it might help to read something written by someone else.

Cheers for the help, in fact, I had read parts of Geroch's notes previously and forgot his take on the problem. I'm a little dissatisfied: restriction to the positive-frequency solutions is equivalent to specifying the equation of motion
[tex]
i\frac{\partial}{\partial t} \psi = \sqrt{k^2 + m^2} \; \psi
[/tex]
in Fourier space, and this isn't equivalent to a differential equation on spacetime. I'd prefer having a differential equation as conceptually more appealing, and it might suggest some way of making it generally covariant. The latter would be necessary if we consider quantizing the scalar field on a curved spacetime.

Or to phrase the same objection in a different way, does the solution space of a generally covariant K-G equation (replace partial derivatives with covariant derivatives) also admit the same separation into positive and negative-frequency solutions?

Stationary spacetime is a heavy restriction! But I'll check it out. I can't get the book you mention but I found some papers by the same author with similar titles on SPIRES and the arxiv. Thanks.