Note that from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality and the formula $(a+b+c)^2=a^2+b^2+c^2+2(ab+bc+ca)$, we have the following inequality that always holds for all real $a,\,b$ and $c$:
$$a^2+b^2+c^2\ge ab+bc+ca$$
$$a^2+b^2+c^2\ge \frac{(a+b+c)^2}{3}$$(*)
But from the given equality, we know $a^2+b^2+c^2=1-(a+b+c)$. Replacing this relation into the inequality (*) and solve it for $a+b+c$, we see that we get:
$$1-(a+b+c)\ge \frac{(a+b+c)^2}{3}$$
$$3-3(a+b+c)\ge (a+b+c)^2$$
$$0\ge (a+b+c)^2+3(a+b+c)-3$$
$-3\le a+b+c \le 0$
But observe that all of the following cases don't yield for integer solutions for the system:
$a+b+c=-3\cap a^2+b^2+c^2=4;\,a+b+c=-2\cap a^2+b^2+c^2=3$
$a+b+c=-1\cap a^2+b^2+c^2=2;\,a+b+c=0\cap a^2+b^2+c^2=1$
Therefore there are no such integer in $a,\,b$ and $c$ such that $a^2+b^2+c^2 + a + b+ c = 1$.