- #1
Boxc
- 3
- 0
Hello,
I came across a text saying that if
[tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(x)=1[/tex]
then
[tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(kx)=\frac{1}{k}[/tex]
when does this apply? Does it apply for all improper integrals from [tex]-\infty[/tex] to [tex]\infty[/tex] or only when the integral evaluates to 1?
The article where I read it stated it as something obvious with no explanations or conditions.
I came across a text saying that if
[tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(x)=1[/tex]
then
[tex]\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}P(kx)=\frac{1}{k}[/tex]
when does this apply? Does it apply for all improper integrals from [tex]-\infty[/tex] to [tex]\infty[/tex] or only when the integral evaluates to 1?
The article where I read it stated it as something obvious with no explanations or conditions.