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Integral solution to pi numeric result

  1. Jul 13, 2010 #1
    I am posting for my son, who needs the full readout for a formula, more than what a small graphing calculator can do. Is there such a program for that? Am I in the right place to get an answer for this?
    I need the numeric result of "2 times the inverted sign of 1 minus the inverted sign of 0."
    Does it go on forever or does it end?
    I would appreciate any help in this for my mathmatical skills are limited, and I would like to help my son who is in prison and does not have access to computers of any sort.
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 13, 2010 #2


    Staff: Mentor

    Is this the expression you're asking about?
    2(-1) - (-0)

    If so, the value is -2.

    I'm interpreting "inverted sign" of something as the negative of something.
  4. Jul 13, 2010 #3
    Is it possible the the original poster meant 2*ArcSin(1)-ArcSin(0) when he wrote "2 times the inverted sign of 1 minus the inverted sign of 0"? 2*ArcSin(1)-ArcSin(0) is exactly Pi.

    If you go to www.wolframalpha.com and you enter 2*ArcSin(1)-ArcSin(0) and you use ArcSin instead of "inverted sign" then that will give you an exact answer and will give you lots of decimals of an approximation.

    That web page will also answer lots of other mathematical questions if you can guess the correct words to use.
  5. Jul 13, 2010 #4
    I want to thank those who responded to the question posed. It was not a question meant to deceive or trick. My apologies. My son, as I said before, is in prison with no access to computers or calculators. He felt through the work that he had been doing that he had found a finite solution to pi, which I have discovered in my inquiry into this, has already been attempted/done. I would like to thank Bill who referred me to the wolframalpha site with an entry. Quite helpful. I was simply an English, French, theatre major mom lost in the realm of math on a quest to help her son.
    Last edited: Jul 13, 2010
  6. Jul 13, 2010 #5


    User Avatar
    Science Advisor

    But is it true then, that by "inverted sign" you mean the "inverse sine" function?

    [itex]2 sin^{-1}(1)- sin^{-1}(0)= 2(\pi/2)- 0= \pi[/itex]
    because [itex]sin(\pi/2)= 1[/itex] so [itex]sin^{-1}(1)= \pi/2[/itex] and [itex]sin(0)= 0[/itex] so [itex]sin^{-1}(0)= 0[/itex].

    Note the important difference in spelling between "sign" and "sine"! Until I saw Bill Simpson's response, I was completely stumped.
  7. Jul 13, 2010 #6
    Thank you, too, HallsofIvy, for the enlightenment of "sine"!
  8. Jul 13, 2010 #7


    Staff: Mentor

    Also, for future reference, please don't post the same message in two or more sections.
  9. Jul 14, 2010 #8
    My overly zealous ignorance in navigating this site earned me yet another chastisement.
    Advice duly noted, Mark44.
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