Integral test by comparison(Please verify my proof)

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that the integral \( a_n = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\sin(x)}{x+n\pi} \) is greater than or equal to \( a_{n+1} \). The proof utilizes the integral test of comparison, demonstrating that the difference between the two integrals is non-negative. The conclusion is reached by analyzing the integrand and establishing that the denominator for \( a_{n+1} \) is larger on the interval \( (0, \pi) \), ensuring the positivity of the integral. The proof is confirmed as sufficient for the stated claim.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of integral calculus, specifically improper integrals.
  • Familiarity with the comparison test for convergence of integrals.
  • Knowledge of properties of the sine function and its behavior over the interval \( (0, \pi) \).
  • Basic algebraic manipulation of fractions and integrals.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of improper integrals and their convergence criteria.
  • Learn about the comparison test in greater detail, including its applications in various contexts.
  • Explore advanced techniques in integral calculus, such as integration by parts and substitution methods.
  • Investigate the behavior of trigonometric functions in integrals over specified intervals.
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in mathematics, particularly those focusing on calculus and analysis, as well as anyone interested in understanding the convergence of integrals through comparison methods.

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Integral test by comparison(Please look at my work)

Homework Statement



Looking at the Integral

a_n = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{sin(x)}{x+n\pi}

prove that a_n \geq a_{n+1}

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Proof

given the integral test of comparison and since a_n is convergent, then a_n will always be larger than a_(n+1), by comparisons test.

q.e.d.

Is this surficient? Or do I need to add something that they converge to different limit point?


Sincerely Yours
Maria
 
Last edited:
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What can you say about the integrand of a_{n+1} as compared to that of a_{n} on the interval (0,\pi)?
 
Here is my now proof:

the difference between the two integrals, we seek to show:

$\forall n\in\mathbb{N}:\int_0^\pi\left({\sin t\over t+n\pi}-{\sin t\over t+(n+1)\pi}\right)\,dt\ge 0

Common denominator:

$=\int_0^\pi\left({\sin t((t+(n+1)\pi)-(t+n\pi))\over (t+n\pi)(t+(n+1)\pi)}\right)\,dt

$=\pi\int_0^\pi\left({\sin t\over (t^2+(2n+1)\pi t+(n^2+n)\pi)}\right)\,dt

From here we can use the fact that the denominator on the half of the interval where sinus is negative is larger than the denominator of each and every other corresponding point on the other half of the interval, so the whole integral must be positive.

q.e.d.

How does it look now?

Sincerely Maria.
 
Last edited:

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