Interesting bounding of Analytic Functions

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the properties of analytic functions, specifically whether there exists an analytic function in the upper half-plane that is unbounded while all of its derivatives remain bounded but not identically zero. Participants explore related questions about the implications of bounded derivatives on the boundedness of the function itself.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions if there exists an analytic function in the upper half-plane that is unbounded while all of its derivatives are bounded but not identically zero.
  • Another participant proposes the function f(s) = s + exp(s) as an example, stating it is unbounded in the left half-plane and has bounded derivatives for Re s < 0.
  • A different participant discusses the implications of boundedness of derivatives, referencing Liouville's theorem and suggesting that if f'' exists everywhere and is bounded, then f must be constant or of the form As + B, which could be unbounded.
  • Another counterexample is introduced with the function sin(z) + z, prompting further exploration of the conditions under which derivatives can be bounded or unbounded.
  • A participant raises a new question about whether, if f is analytic in some domain and f' is bounded, f'' or any other derivative can be unbounded.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the existence of such functions and the implications of bounded derivatives, indicating that multiple competing views remain and the discussion is unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the domains of the functions and the nature of boundedness are not fully explored, and the implications of Liouville's theorem are debated without reaching a consensus.

Hyperbolful
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A general question I came up with and it might be trivial, but I'm not entirely sure what the answer is.

Does there exist a function analytic in the upperhalf plane that is unbounded and all of its derivatives are bounded but not identically zero?

or equivilently
does
d^n/(dz)^n(f)<M for every n imply that f is bounded
 
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>Does there exist a function analytic in the upperhalf plane that is unbounded and all of its derivatives are bounded but not identically zero?

Yes.

Consider the function f(s)=s+exp(s). For Re s < 0, |f(s)| > |s+1|, so it's unbounded in the left half-plane.

It's derivatives are either 1+exp(s) or exp(s) and they are bounded for Re s < 0 with magnitudes in the range (0,2).

So the function has bounded derivatives in a half plane yet is itself unbounded there.

To make it the upper halfplane instead of the left halfplane just use f(is) instead of f(s).
 
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Yeah another counter example is sin(z)+z
I'm going to post a better thread

let f be analytic in some domain not the entire plane, and let f' be bounded

can f'' or any other derivative for that matter be unbounded?
 

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