Undergrad Interpreting "momentum" in WKB approximation

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In the WKB approximation, the wave function is inversely proportional to the particle's momentum, indicating that higher momentum leads to lower probability of finding the particle in a specific position. This relationship aligns with the understanding that higher velocities correspond to reduced chances of localization. However, confusion arises regarding the inverse relationship between momentum and de Broglie wavelength, where higher wavelengths suggest a more spread-out particle distribution. The discussion clarifies that WKB assumes high momentum, meaning the wavelength is short relative to the averaging length used for calculating probabilities. This highlights the need to reconcile the classical interpretation of momentum with quantum mechanical implications.
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According to WKB approximation, the wave function \psi (x) \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{p(x)}}
This implies that the probability of finding a particle in between x and x+dx is inversely proportional to the momentum of the particle in the given potential.

According to the book, R. Shankar, this is "familiar" to us since higher momentum corresponds to higher velocities and consequently, higher velocity implies lesser chances of finding the particle at some position.

However, I'm confused regarding the fact that the momentum, being inversely proportional to the de Broglie wavelength implies that the probability is proportional to λ. This seems unreasonable, since higher wavelengths imply the particle is more "spread out in space" corresponding to less chances of finding it.

This is an honest doubt I've had ever since I came across the de Broglie relation and it just keeps building up, which leads me to question the physical meaning of the term p(x). Any insights will be very much appreciated.
 
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If you see a stop sign, you have two options: a) stop, or b) go as fast as you can through the intersection, minimizing the time you spend there, right?

If you are traveling with velocity v, the time you spend between x and x + dx is inversely proportional to your velocity, and thus momentum. WKB is simply using this classical fact.
 
Yeah I understand the interpretation regarding velocities... What's bothering me is the one regarding wavelengths.
 
WKB is a high momentum aoproximation. So you are assuming that the wavelength is short compared to the legth over which you are averaging to get the mean probability to find the particle.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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