A Interpreting the energy density of QFT vacuum states

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The discussion focuses on the interpretation of vacuum energy density in quantum field theory as presented in Peskin-Schroeder's text. The term "relative to the zero of energy set by ##H_0|0\rangle = 0##" indicates that the vacuum state is defined to have zero energy, allowing for a constant energy shift in the Hamiltonian. The delta function in the expression does not imply the right side is negligible; rather, it requires careful interpretation in a distributional sense within perturbation theory. The derivation of Equation (4.56) from Equation (4.55) involves taking the logarithm of the left-hand side and applying combinatorial results related to moment generating functions. Overall, the discussion clarifies the nuances of vacuum energy density and its mathematical underpinnings in quantum field theory.
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I am reading Peskin-Schroeder's QFT text, and there on pg. 98 Equation (4.56) they derive the expression for the vacuum energy density (relative to the zero of energy set by ##H_0|0\rangle = 0##):
$$ \frac{E_0}{\rm{Volume}} = \frac{i\,\sum\text{(all disconnected pieces)}}{(2\pi)^4\,\delta^4(0)}\ . $$
My questions are:
  • What do they mean by "relative to the zero of energy set by ##H_0|0\rangle = 0##" ?
  • The right side of the above expression has a delta function evaluated at 0. Doesn't that imply that the right side is essentially negligible/zero? Then how does one interpret this equation? The vacuum has zero energy?
  • How does one derive Equation (4.56) starting from Equation (4.55) which states:
    $$ e^{\sum V_i}\propto e^{-2iE_0T}\ ? $$
 
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math-physicist said:
I am reading Peskin-Schroeder's QFT text, and there on pg. 98 Equation (4.56) they derive the expression for the vacuum energy density (relative to the zero of energy set by ##H_0|0\rangle = 0##):
$$ \frac{E_0}{\rm{Volume}} = \frac{i\,\sum\text{(all disconnected pieces)}}{(2\pi)^4\,\delta^4(0)}\ . $$
My questions are:
  • What do they mean by "relative to the zero of energy set by ##H_0|0\rangle = 0##" ?
A Hamiltonian is defined only up to a constant energy shift. The condition fixes this constant by requiring that that the ground state (vacuum) has energy zero.
math-physicist said:
  • The right side of the above expression has a delta function evaluated at 0. Doesn't that imply that the right side is essentially negligible/zero? Then how does one interpret this equation? The vacuum has zero energy?
No. The delta function is in the denominator! This is sloppy notation, What is meant is that after multiplication with the denominator, reinterpreting the formula in a distributional sense, and integration over a test function, the equation is valid in perturbation theory.
math-physicist said:
  • How does one derive Equation (4.56) starting from Equation (4.55) which states:
    $$ e^{\sum V_i}\propto e^{-2iE_0T}\ ? $$
This is a well-known combinatorial results for generating functionals, relating the moment generating function and the cumulant generating function. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moment-generating_function#Relation_to_other_functions
 
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@A. Neumaier , Thank you for your answer. Your answer to my first two questions makes sense. but in answer to my third question, you said:
A. Neumaier said:
This is a well-known combinatorial results for generating functionals, relating the moment generating function and the cumulant generating function. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moment-generating_function#Relation_to_other_functions
I think you misinterpreted what I was asking. I meant to ask why does that proportionality imply the energy density relation? I.e.,
$$ e^{\sum V_i}\propto e^{-2iE_0T} \stackrel{\implies}{\rm{(Why??)}} \frac{E_0}{\rm{Volume}} = \frac{i\,\sum\text{(all disconnected pieces)}}{(2\pi)^4\,\delta^4(0)}\ . $$
Could you please at least sketch the steps of this derivation? TIA.
 
math-physicist said:
@A. Neumaier , Thank you for your answer. Your answer to my first two questions makes sense. but in answer to my third question, you said:

I think you misinterpreted what I was asking. I meant to ask why does that proportionality imply the energy density relation? I.e.,
$$ e^{\sum V_i}\propto e^{-2iE_0T} \stackrel{\implies}{\rm{(Why??)}} \frac{E_0}{\rm{Volume}} = \frac{i\,\sum\text{(all disconnected pieces)}}{(2\pi)^4\,\delta^4(0)}\ . $$
Could you please at least sketch the steps of this derivation? TIA.
One takes the logarithm in the left relation and applies the combinatorial result I stated to the expansion of the left hand side, which is the moment generating function.
 
For the quantum state ##|l,m\rangle= |2,0\rangle## the z-component of angular momentum is zero and ##|L^2|=6 \hbar^2##. According to uncertainty it is impossible to determine the values of ##L_x, L_y, L_z## simultaneously. However, we know that ##L_x## and ## L_y##, like ##L_z##, get the values ##(-2,-1,0,1,2) \hbar##. In other words, for the state ##|2,0\rangle## we have ##\vec{L}=(L_x, L_y,0)## with ##L_x## and ## L_y## one of the values ##(-2,-1,0,1,2) \hbar##. But none of these...

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